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QUESTION 1 Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator is setting up the organization group (OG) hierarchy using this information: company has two departments to enroll devices into company has one Active Directory to integrate with company has only one Volume Purchase Program (VPP) account to deploy Purchased apps What is VMware\\’s recommended best practice for which OG should be set to Customer type? A. Global B. Company C. Department 2 D. Department 1 Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 Refer to the exhibit.
While referencing the exhibit, which SDK profile does Security Policies belong to? A. Custom SDK Profile B. Default SDK Profile C. Application Profile D. Intune SDK Profile Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 IT management has announced all traffic from the DMZ will be blocked unless it passes through a newly configured proxy, effective immediately. Administrators notice that SEGv2 is unable to contact the Workspace ONE API server. Which configuration will the administrators need to amend and apply to the SEGv2 servers? A. inbound proxy B. SSL offloading C. KCD integration D. outbound proxy Correct Answer: D Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Workspace-ONE-UEM/2001/WS1_SEGV2_Doc.pdf (21)
QUESTION 6 When integrating Workspace ONE SDK with a productivity app, which three are required for SDK app deployment? (Choose three.) A. Targeted devices need to be enterprise wiped. B. App needs to be pushed and managed. C. App needs to be sideloaded. D. SDK Profile needs to be assigned. E. Targeted devices need to be enrolled and managed by UEM. Correct Answer: BDE Reference: https://techzone.vmware.com/resource/vmware-workspace-one-mobile-application-management#sec3-sub5
QUESTION 7 Which would an administrator use to configure the remote wiping of privileged corporate content and set notification thresholds when a minimum number of devices are wiped within a certain amount of time? A. Compromised Protection Settings B. Notification for Device Blocked C. Managed Device Wipe Protection D. Notifications for Device Enroll/Unenroll Correct Answer: C Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Workspace-ONE-UEM/2001/UEM_Managing_Devices/GUID-AWTWIPEPROTECTION.html
QUESTION 9 An administrator is seeing user attributes not updating in the Workspace ONE UEM console automatically. What can resolve the issue? A. In Scheduler Services, restart user merge. B. In Directory Services, enable auto-merge. C. In Directory Services, enable auto-sync. D. In Scheduler Services, restart user sync. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10 An organization has purchased a SaaS Workspace ONE solution and wants to implement these: integration with back-end resources like Active Directory from Microsoft to sync users and groups Kerberos authentication integration with Virtual Desktops and Applications from services (Horizon 7, Horizon Cloud, or Citrix) third party integration with RSA SecureID, RADIUS for authentication Which Workspace ONE component is required? A. VMware AirWatch Cloud Connector B. VMware Workspace ONE Assist C. VMware Workspace Unified Access Gateway D. VMware Workspace ONE Access Connector Correct Answer: D Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Workspace-ONE-Access/services/rn/VMware-Workspace-ONERelease-Notes—Cloud-2020.html
QUESTION 11 Which three functions are supported by Workspace ONE Intelligence? (Choose three.) A. Conduct augmented analysis with artificial intelligence. B. Perform integration with other service platforms. C. Create a custom report. D. set event-driven automated API actions. E. Automate suggested actions based on VMware recommended practices. Correct Answer: BCE Reference: https://kb.vmtestdrive.com/hc/en-us/articles/360002445574-Workspace-ONE-Intelligence-Overview
QUESTION 12 Which two settings are configurable in a macOS disk encryption profile? (Choose two.) A. FileVault Enterprise Certificate B. Maximum Battery Level C. TPM License Key D. Recovery Key Type E. Administrator Password Policy Correct Answer: DE Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/mem/intune/protect/encrypt-devices-filevault
QUESTION 13 Which three are fields populated by an administrator when adding SaaS Web Applications on Workspace ONE Access? (Choose three.) A. application parameters B. first name format C. username format D. username source ID E. application format F. Single Sign-On URL Correct Answer: CEF
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QUESTION 1 What is one reason for a network administrator to visit the Dashboard > Usage window on an Aruba Mobility Master (MM)? A. to check license usage and determine the need for additional licenses B. to analyze short terms trends in network usage by client, AP, and application C. to view system usage statistics for the MM and troubleshoot potential issues D. to generate reports about traffic patterns and network usage over the past several months Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 A network administrator needs to create an Aruba firewall rule that permits wireless users to receive DHCP settings when they first connect to the Aruba solution. What are the correct source and destination aliases for the rule? A. source = any and destination = user B. source = any and destination = any C. source = user and destination = user D. source = user and destination = any Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 Refer to the exhibits. Exhibit 1 Latest HPE6-A70 D
Exhibit 2
A company has an Aruba Mobility Master (MM)-based solution and needs a new WLAN for the corporate campus. A network administrator completes the creation of this WLAN, as shown in Exhibit 1. When the administrator tries to test a connection to the WLAN in various locations, the WLAN sometimes shows up in the list of WLANs on the client but sometimes does not. The administrator can see the WLAN in the list, as shown in Exhibit 2. What is the error? A. The Mobility Master (MM) does not have an active PEFNG license. B. The WLAN is configured as a hidden SSID. C. The configuration is not deployed to the Mobility Controller (MC). D. The WLAN is configured at a lower level in the Managed Network hierarchy. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4 Network administrators use the wizard to create a WLAN that uses WPA2-Enterprise security to a RADIUS server at 10.21.98.55. They do not manually change any settings. Which device determines the EAP type that the wireless clients must support? A. Mobility Master (MM) B. Mobility Controller (MC) C. RADIUS server D. AP Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5 An Aruba Mobility Master (MM)-based solution has two Virtual MM nodes, a primary and a backup node. The solution must support 30 Virtual Mobility Controllers (VMCs) that will support a total of 960 APs. Which VMC licenses meet the needs and DO NOT unnecessarily exceed them? A. two 1000 VMC licenses (MC-VA-1000) B. one 1000 VMC license (MC-VA-1000) C. two 50 VMC licenses (MC-VA-50) D. one 50 VMC license (MC-VA-50) Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 A company has an Aruba solution that supports an employee WLAN. How can network administrators control which subnet users receive IP addresses? A. Set the VLANs associated with desired subnets in the WLAN settings. B. Configure firewall policies that permit the desired subnet, and add them to the initial role for the WLAN. C. In the WLAN settings, configure User role rules with the desired subnet addresses as match criteria. D. Assign switch ports connected to APs to VLANs associated with the desired subnets. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7 A network administrator examines a list of 2.4GHz clients with low performance in the Mobility Master (MM) dashboard. Which property for a client should pose a concern as a potential performance issue? A. Radio PHY of HT 20MHz B. Max speed of 72Mbps C. Goodput data rate of 12 Mbps D. Usage of 10 MB Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8 A network administrator adds several new APs to an Aruba solution that uses AirMatch. The administrator does not want to change the channel for the existing APs, but wants the new APs to receive a provisional plan for their channels and power. What should the administrator do to meet this goal? A. Run an on-demand quick AirMatch optimization. B. Run an on-demand incremental AirMatch optimization. C. Temporarily enable ARM on the existing and new APs, while AirMatch scheduling remains enabled. D. Temporarily disable AirMatch scheduling and then enable ARM on the existing and new APs. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9 What is one difference between an Aruba firewall access controle rule and an application rule? A. An application rule cannot use the packet source and destination IP addresses as part of its match criteria. B. An access rule can filter non-IP traffic, as well as IPv4 and IPv6 traffic. C. An access rule cannot apply different actions to different types of traffic sent to the same destination. D. An application rule can filter traffic at a higher layer beyond the TCP or UDP port. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10 A company has an Aruba solution. A network administrator wants to prevent wireless users from accessing shopping web sites with a bad reputation. What should the administrator set up to deny such traffic? A. an AppRF engine B. application filters in the Traffic Analysis dashboard C. firewall access control rules that specify HTTP and HTTPS services D. firewall application rules Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11 Which IEEE standard provides the highest transmission rates in the 5.0GHz frequency band? A. 802.11a B. 802.11ac C. 802.11g D. 802.11n Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12 Which Aruba controller supports a maximum of 512 APs? A. Aruba 7010 B. Aruba 7030 C. Aruba 7210 D. Aruba 7240 Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13 Refer to the exhibit.
A network administrator creates a guest WLAN on an Aruba Mobility Master (MM). The exhibit shows some of the settings for the WLAN. How should the network administrator handle the Auth server settings? A. Add an authentication server with the LDAP type and the IP address of the company AD server. B. Add an authentication server with the LDAP type and IP address 10.10.10.10. C. Add an authentication server with the RADIUS type and IP address 10.10.10.10. D. Add an authentication server with the RADIUS type and the IP address of the company AD server. Correct Answer: C
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QUESTION 1 An administrator deployed a new FlexFabric switch Into the environment and wants to collect baseline information from the switch The administrator wants to be able to use this in case there is any question from support should the administrator open a case. Which command can the administrator use to collect support information from the switch? A. support save B. show switch Info C. display diagnostic-information D. show tech all Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 Why is SNMPv2c considered to be insecure? A. SNMPv2c agents only accept GET requests which match their read-only community string B. SNMPv2c community strings are transmitted in clear text C. SNMPv2c only allows the signing of the message payload D. SNMPv2c agents only encrypt WRITE messages. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 Which HPE tool can you use to ensure a consistent level of firmware exists across all BladeSystem interconnects and servers in an environment? A. InfoSight B. OneView C. Insight Remote Support D. iLO Federation Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 Refer to the exhibit.
A customer has been using VEEAM and the HPE StoreOnce 3620 shown in the exhibit to backup their environment. The customer\\’s legal team has asked to double their retention times for all backup sets, and they are starting to run out of space on the StoreOnce. Which options could you recommend that the customer add to their existing configuration to accommodate the new requirement? (Select two. Each option represents a separate solution.) A. HPE StoreOnce Cloud Bank Storage B. HPE StoreOnce 3620 24TB Capacity Upgrade Kit C. HPE StoreOnce Gen4 16Gb Fibre Channel Network Card D. HPE StoreOnce Gen4 10/25Gb SFP Network card E. HPE D3710 Storage Enclosure Correct Answer: BD Reference: https://www.hpe.com/uk/en/product-catalog/storage/disk-based-backup-systems/pip.specifications.hpestoreonce-systems.1011014655.html
QUESTION 5 Which protocol should be used to access an exported directory on a network-attached storage device? A. RIP B. NFS C. BGP D. SNMP Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 HOTSPOT You are configuring an MSA 2052 for one of your customers in OCA. Click on either one of the two places on the Bill of Materials screen that will enable you to verify the configuration and get details on any errors Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 7 You need to install 10 HPE ProLiant servers in an environment without DHCP. Which tool can you use to set up remote management? A. Intelligent Provisioning B. UEFI System Utilities C. Intelligent Management Center D. iLO 5 Configuration Utility Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8 A customer is planning an upgrade to their network infrastructure. They want to move to an open networking solution, and they want to install a network switch that supports their choice of network operating system. Which HPE product family will meet the customer\\’s needs? A. Altoline B. FlexFabric C. Arista D. Aruba Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 Where would a customer go running the SSD wear Gauge report on an HPE ProLiant server? A. OneView Standard B. UEFI System Bios C. insight Diagnostics D. Smart Storage Administrator Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10 A customer is purchasing a complete HPE solution that includes servers, storage, and networking. They need to leverage cloud storage for an off-site copy of their data in case of disaster. Which HPE solutions should you suggest? (Choose two.) A. HPE MSA Storage B. HPE StoreOnce C. HPE Smart RAID D. HPE StoreEver E. HPE Nimble Storage Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 11 A customer needs to implement VMware across a few racks of servers. They anticipate a large amount of VM creation and retirement. What are key technologies in a Top of Rack (ToR) switch that support this environment? (Choose three.) A. Smart Rate Support B. Deep Packet Buffers C. VPN Support D. PoE support E. MLAG support F. Rapid Configuration Management Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 12 A customer purchased a Nimble HF20 a year ago They are experiencing an issue with a few of their VMware servers in the RTP Nimble data center and asked that you make a recommendation based on the data in infoSight.
What should you recommend\\’? A. Add cache to the array for the RTP Nimble Datacenter. B. increase the cache size for VMware-DS-Space-NoDeDup C. increase the datastore size for VMware-DS-Space-NoDeDup. D. Add another datastore for the RTP Nimble Datacenter Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13 A customer is considering an HPE ProLiant DL380 Gen10 server for their data center. The customer runs a large Oracle database. They need to increase performance and reduce their licensing costs. Which feature of HPE Gen10 servers offers these benefits? A. workload profile matching B. agentless management C. jitter smoothing D. core boosting Correct Answer: D
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QUESTION 1 Bootloader malware was recently discovered on several company workstations. All the workstations run Windows and are current models with UEFI capability. Which of the following UEFI settings is the MOST likely cause of the infections? A. Compatibility mode B. Secure boot mode C. Native mode D. Fast boot mode Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 A security analyst for a large financial institution is creating a threat model for a specific threat actor that is likely targeting an organization\\’s financial assets. Which of the following is the BEST example of the level of sophistication this threat actor is using? A. Social media accounts attributed to the threat actor B. Custom malware attributed to the threat actor from prior attacks C. Email addresses and phone numbers tied to the threat actor D. Network assets used in previous attacks attributed to the threat actor E. IP addresses used by the threat actor for command and control Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 The security team at a large corporation is helping the payment-processing team to prepare for a regulatory compliance audit and meet the following objectives: Reduce the number of potential findings by the auditors. Limit the scope of the audit to only devices used by the payment-processing team for activities directly impacted by the regulations. Prevent the external-facing web infrastructure used by other teams from coming into the scope. Limit the amount of exposure the company will face if the systems used by the payment-processing team are compromised. Which of the following would be the MOST effective way for the security team to meet these objectives? A. Limit the permissions to prevent other employees from accessing data owned by the business unit. B. Segment the servers and systems used by the business unit from the rest of the network. C. Deploy patches to all servers and workstations across the entire organization. D. Implement full-disk encryption on the laptops used by employees of the payment-processing team. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 While planning segmentation for an ICS environment, a security engineer determines IT resources will need access to devices within the ICS environment without compromising security. To provide the MOST secure access model in this scenario, the jump box should be __________. A. placed in an isolated network segment, authenticated on the IT side, and forwarded into the ICS network. B. placed on the ICS network with a static firewall rule that allows IT network resources to authenticate. C. bridged between the IT and operational technology networks to allow authenticated access. D. placed on the IT side of the network, authenticated, and tunneled into the ICS environment. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 A SIEM solution alerts a security analyst of a high number of login attempts against the company\\’s webmail portal. The analyst determines the login attempts used credentials from a past data breach. Which of the following is the BEST mitigation to prevent unauthorized access? A. Single sign-on B. Mandatory access control C. Multifactor authentication D. Federation E. Privileged access management Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6 A security analyst is building a malware analysis lab. The analyst wants to ensure malicious applications are not capable of escaping the virtual machines and pivoting to other networks. To BEST mitigate this risk, the analyst should use __________. A. an 802.11ac wireless bridge to create an air gap. B. a managed switch to segment the lab into a separate VLAN. C. a firewall to isolate the lab network from all other networks. D. an unmanaged switch to segment the environments from one another. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7 A security analyst has received information from a third-party intelligence-sharing resource that indicates employee accounts were breached. Which of the following is the NEXT step the analyst should take to address the issue? A. Audit access permissions for all employees to ensure the least privilege. B. Force a password reset for the impacted employees and revoke any tokens. C. Configure SSO to prevent passwords from going outside the local network. D. Set up privileged access management to ensure auditing is enabled. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8 During routine monitoring, a security analyst discovers several suspicious websites that are communicating with the localhost. The analyst queries for IP 192.168.50.2 for a 24-hour period:
To further investigate, the analyst should request PCAP for SRC 192.168.50.2 and __________. A. DST 138.10.2.5. B. DST 138.10.25.5. C. DST 172.10.3.5. D. DST 172.10.45.5. E. DST 175.35.20.5. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9 A security analyst is trying to determine if a host is active on a network. The analyst first attempts the following:
Which of the following would explain the difference in results? A. ICMP is being blocked by a firewall. B. The routing tables for ping and hping3 were different. C. The original ping command needed root permission to execute. D. hping3 is returning a false positive. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10 A security analyst has received reports of very slow, intermittent access to a public-facing corporate server. Suspecting the system may be compromised, the analyst runs the following commands:
Based on the output from the above commands, which of the following should the analyst do NEXT to further the investigation? A. Run crontab -r; rm -rf /tmp/.t to remove and disable the malware on the system. B. Examine the server logs for further indicators of compromise of a web application. C. Run kill -9 1325 to bring the load average down so the server is usable again. D. Perform a binary analysis on the /tmp/.t/t file, as it is likely to be a rogue SSHD server. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11 A development team uses open-source software and follows an Agile methodology with two-week sprints. Last month, the security team filed a bug for an insecure version of a common library. The DevOps team updated the library on the server, and then the security team rescanned the server to verify it was no longer vulnerable. This month, the security team found the same vulnerability on the server. Which of the following should be done to correct the cause of the vulnerability? A. Deploy a WAF in front of the application. B. Implement a software repository management tool. C. Install a HIPS on the server. D. Instruct the developers to use input validation in the code. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12 Which of the following software security best practices would prevent an attacker from being able to run arbitrary SQL commands within a web application? (Choose two.) A. Parameterized queries B. Session management C. Input validation D. Output encoding E. Data protection F. Authentication Correct Answer: AC Reference: https://www.ptsecurity.com/ww-en/analytics/knowledge-base/how-to-prevent-sql-injection-attacks/
QUESTION 13 A security analyst reviews the following aggregated output from a Nmap scan and the border firewall ACL:
Which of the following should the analyst reconfigure to BEST reduce organizational risk while maintaining current functionality? A. PC1 B. PC2 C. Server1 D. Server2 E. Firewall Correct Answer: E
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QUESTION 1 A technician receives a report that a user\\’s workstation is experiencing no network connectivity. The technician investigates and notices the patch cable running the back of the user\\’s VoIP phone is routed directly under the rolling chair and has been smashed flat over time. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this issue? A. Cross-talk B. Electromagnetic interference C. Excessive collisions D. Split pairs Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 A zero-day crypto-worm is quickly spreading through the internal network on port 25 and exploiting a software vulnerability found within the email servers. Which of the following countermeasures needs to be implemented as soon as possible to mitigate the worm from continuing to spread? A. Implement a traffic sinkhole. B. Block all known port/services. C. Isolate impacted servers. D. Patch affected systems. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 A security analyst is conducting a vulnerability assessment of older SCADA devices on the corporate network. Which of the following compensating controls are likely to prevent the scans from providing value? A. Access control list network segmentation that prevents access to the SCADA devices inside the network. B. Detailed and tested firewall rules that effectively prevent outside access of the SCADA devices. C. Implementation of a VLAN that allows all devices on the network to see all SCADA devices on the network. D. SCADA systems configured with `SCADA SUPPORT\\’=ENABLE Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 A security team is implementing a new vulnerability management program in an environment that has a historically poor security posture. The team is aware of issues patch management in the environment and expects a large number of findings. Which of the following would be the MOST efficient way to increase the security posture of the organization in the shortest amount of time? A. Create an SLA stating that remediation actions must occur within 30 days of discovery for all levels of vulnerabilities. B. Incorporate prioritization levels into the remediation process and address critical findings first. C. Create classification criteria for data residing on different servers and provide remediation only for servers housing sensitive data. D. Implement a change control policy that allows the security team to quickly deploy patches in the production environment to reduce the risk of any vulnerabilities found. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 A security architect is reviewing the options for performing input validation on incoming web form submissions. Which of the following should the architect as the MOST secure and manageable option? A. Client-side whitelisting B. Server-side whitelisting C. Server-side blacklisting D. Client-side blacklisting Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 An organization is conducting penetration testing to identify possible network vulnerabilities. The penetration tester has received the following output from the latest scan:
The penetration tester knows the organization does not use Timbuktu servers and wants to have Nmap interrogate the ports on the target in more detail. Which of the following commands should the penetration tester use NEXT? A. nmap ?V 192.168.1.13 ?1417 B. nmap ?S 192.168.1.13 ?1417 C. sudo Nmap ?S 192.168.1.13 D. Nmap 192.168.1.13? Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7 A cybersecurity analyst was asked to review several results of web vulnerability scan logs. Given the following snippet of code:
Which of the following BEST describes the situation and recommendations to be made? A. The security analyst has discovered an embedded iframe pointing to source IP 65.240.22.1 network. The code should include the domain name. Recommend the entry be updated with the domain name. B. The security analyst has discovered an embedded iframe that is hidden from users accessing the web page. This code is correct. This is a design preference, and no vulnerabilities are present. C. The security analyst has discovered an embedded iframe pointing to source IP 65.240.22.1 network. The link is hidden and suspicious. Recommend the entry be removed from the web page. D. The security analyst has discovered an embedded iframe pointing to source IP 65.240.22.1 network. Recommend making the iframe visible. Fixing the code will correct the issue. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8 An alert is issued from the SIEM that indicates a large number of failed logins for the same account name on one of the application servers starting at 10:20 a.m. No other significant failed login activity is detected. Using Splunk to search for activity pertaining to that account name, a security analyst finds the account has been authenticating successfully for some time and started to fail this morning. The account is attempting to authenticate from an internal server that is running a database to an application server. No other security activity is detected on the network. The analyst discovers the account owner is a developer who no longer works for the company. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for the failed login attempts for that account? A. The account that is failing to authenticate has not been maintained, and the company password change policy time frame has been reached for that account B. The host-based firewall is blocking port 389 LDAP communication, preventing the login credentials from being received by the application server C. The license for the application has expired, and the failed logins will continue to occur until a new license key is installed on the application D. A successful malware attack has provided someone access to the network, and failed login attempts are an indication of an attempt to privilege access to the application Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 Organizational policies require vulnerability remediation on severity 7 or greater within one week. Anything with a severity less than 7 must be remediated within 30 days. The organization also requires security teams to investigate the details of a vulnerability before performing any remediation. If the investigation determines the finding is a false positive, no remediation is performed and the vulnerability scanner configuration is updated to omit the false positive from future scans: The organization has three Apache web servers:
The results of a recent vulnerability scan are shown below: The team performs some investigation and finds a statement from Apache:
Which of the following actions should the security team perform? A. Ignore the false positive on 192.168.1.22 B. Remediate 192.168.1.20 within 30 days C. Remediate 192.168.1.22 within 30 days D. Investigate the false negative on 192.168.1.20 Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10 A company has several internal-only, web-based applications on the internal network. Remote employees are allowed to connect to the internal corporate network with a company-supplied VPN client. During a project to upgrade the internal application, contractors were hired to work on a database server and were given copies of the VPN client so they could work remotely. A week later, a security analyst discovered an internal web-server had been compromised by malware that originated from one of the contractor\\’s laptops. Which of the following changes should be made to BEST counter the threat presented in this scenario? A. Create a restricted network segment for contractors and set up a jump box for the contractors to use to access internal resources. B. Deploy a web application firewall in the DMZ to stop Internet-based attacks on the webserver. C. Deploy an application layer firewall with network access control lists at the perimeter and then create alerts for suspicious Layer 7 traffic. D. Require the contractors to bring their laptops on-site when accessing the internal network instead of using the VPN from a remote location. E. Implement NAC to check for updated anti-malware signatures and location-based rules for PCs connecting to the internal network. Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 11 A logistics company\\’s vulnerability scan identifies the following vulnerabilities on Internet-facing devices in the DMZ: SQL injection on an infrequently used web server that provides files to vendors SSL/TLS not used for a website that contains promotional information The scan also shows the following vulnerabilities on internal resources: Microsoft Office Remote Code Execution on test server for a human resources system TLS downgrade vulnerability on a server in a development network In order of risk, which of the following should be patched FIRST? A. Microsoft Office Remote Code Execution B. SQL injection C. SSL/TLS not used D. TLS downgrade Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12 A cybersecurity analyst is currently investigating a server outage. The analyst has discovered the following value was entered for the username: 0xbfff601a. Which of the following attacks may be occurring? A. Buffer overflow attack B. Man-in-the-middle attack C. Smurf attack D. Format string attack E. Denial of service attack Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13 A security analyst has discovered that an outbound SFTP process is occurring at the same time of day for the past several days. At the time this was discovered, large amounts of business-critical data were delivered. The authentication for this process occurred using a service account with proper credentials. The security analyst investigated the destination IP for this transfer and discovered that this new process is not documented in the change management log. Which of the following would be the BEST course of action for the analyst to take? A. Investigate a potential incident. B. Verify user permissions. C. Run a vulnerability scan. D. Verify SLA with the cloud provider. Correct Answer: A
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RS exit stake in history stage, RS direction changed to Enterprise direction, existing RS certification automatically upgraded to enterprise infrastructure certification after the release of new certification Design direction changed to DevNet direction, CCDA to DevNet Associate, CCDP to DevNet Professional
Latest updates Cisco 300-320 exam practice questions
QUESTION 1 Which one of these could you implement to sustain a large DDoS attack? A. Stateful firewall B. uRPF C. Connections limits and timeouts D. Access-lists Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 A network engineer wants to segregate three interconnected campus network via IS-IS routing. A two-layer hierarchy must be used to support large routing domains to avoid more specific routes from each campus network being advertised to other campus network routers automatically. What two actions should be taken to accomplish this segregation? (Choose two). A. Assign a unique IS-IS NET value for each campus and configure internal campus routers with level 1 routing. B. Designate two IS-IS routers from each campus to act as a Layer 1/Layer 2 backbone routers at the edge of each campus network. C. Designate two IS-IS routers as BDR routers at the edge of each campus. D. Assign similar router IDs to all routers within each campus. E. Change the MTU sizes of the interface of each campus network router with a different value Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 3 When 2 distribution switches are configured for VSS, what needs to be done to extend back plane connectivity? A. ISL B. VSL C. VSS Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 You are designing a scalable cluster that contains a combination of Cisco APIC-M and APIC-L controllers. Which controller provides the scalability used in the cluster? A. APIC-M B. APIC-EM C. combination of APIC-M and APIC -I D. APIC-L Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 Which protocols support 10 and 40 Gb interfaces? (Choose two) A. RIP B. OSPF C. EIGRP D. BGP Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 6 In a base e-Commerce module design, which routing statement is correct? A. Routing is mostly static. B. Hardcoded IP addresses are used to support failover. C. Inbound servers use the CSM or ACE as the default gateway. D. VLANs between the access layer switches are used for FHRP protocols. Correct Answer: A https://www.safaribooksonline.com/library/view/foundation-learning-guide/9780132652933/ch07.html “Base Design Routing Logic Routing in this e-commerce module design is mostly static, using VIP addresses to support failover.”
QUESTION 7 Due to financial constraints, an engineer is forced to use WAN edge routers with limited memory. BGP is used to exchange routing information with external customers. Which two additional actions are taken in this design? (Choose two.) A. Utilize iBGP to reduce memory utilization. B. Allow any BGP route that has external customer AS in the AS path. C. Filter any BGP routes that were not originated in external customer AS. D. Implement the Maximum-Prefix feature. E. Permit only specific routes from the external customers. Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 8 When is a first-hop redundancy protocol needed in the distribution layer? A. when the design implements Layer 2 between the access and distribution blocks B. when multiple vendor devices need to be supported C. when preempt tuning of the default gateway is needed D. when a robust method of backing up the default gateway is needed E. when the design implements Layer 2 between the access switch and the distribution blocks Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 Which three statements about firewall modes are correct? (Choose three.) A. A firewall in routed mode has one IP address. B. A firewall in transparent mode has one IP address. C. In routed mode, the firewall is considered to be a Layer 2 device. D. In routed mode, the firewall is considered to be a Layer 3 device. E. In transparent mode, the firewall is considered to be a Layer 2 device. F. In transparent mode, the firewall is considered to be a Layer 3 device. Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 10 An engineer is designing a network using RSTP. Several devices on the network support only legacy STP. Which outcome occurs? A. RSTP and STP choose the protocol with the best performance. B. RSTP and STP interoperate and fast convergence is achieved. C. RSTP and STP are not compatible and legacy ports error disable. D. RSTP and STP interoperate, but the fast convergence is not used. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11 Which three options are the three layers of the Cisco design in the data center architecture? (Choose three.) A. core layer B. distribution layer C. service layer D. aggregation layer E. Layer 2 domain sizing F. access layer Correct Answer: ADF
QUESTION 12 What command essentially turns on auto summarization for EIGRP? A. area 0 range 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0.0 B. router eigrp 1 C. ip summary-address eigrp 1 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 D. ip summary-address 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 E. eigrp stub Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13 An organization is creating a detailed QoS plan that limits bandwidth to specific rates. Which three parameters can be configured when attempting to police traffic within the network? (Choose three) (E) A. Conforming B. Violating C. Bursting D. Peak information rate E. Committed information rate F. Exceeding G. Shaping rate Correct Answer: CDE
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The Developing Applications Using Cisco Core Platforms and APIs v1.0 (DEVCOR 350-901) exam is a 120-minute exam associated with the Cisco Certified DevNet Professional certification. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of software development and design including using APIs, Cisco platforms, application deployment and security, and infrastructure and automation. The course, Developing Applications Using Cisco Core Platforms and APIs, helps candidates to prepare for this exam.
The Automating and Programming Cisco Enterprise Solutions v1.0 (ENAUTO 300-435) exam is a 90-minute exam associated with the CCNP Enterprise, Cisco Certified DevNet Professional, and Cisco Certified DevNet Specialist – Enterprise Automation and Programmability certifications. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of implementing Enterprise automated solutions, including programming concepts, Python programming, APIs, controllers and automation tools. The course, Implementing Cisco Enterprise Automation Solutions, helps candidates to prepare for this exam.
The Automating and Programming Cisco Collaboration Solutions v1.0 (CLAUTO 300-835) exam is a 90-minute exam associated with the CCNP Collaboration, Cisco Certified DevNet Professional, and Cisco Certified DevNet Specialist – Collaboration Automation and Programmability certifications. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of implementing applications that automate and extend Cisco Collaboration platforms, including programming concepts, APIs and automation protocols, and Python programming. The course, Implementing Cisco Collaboration Automation Solutions, helps candidates to prepare for this exam.
The Automating and Programming Cisco Data Center Solutions v1.0 (DCAUTO 300-635) exam is a 90-minute exam associated with the CCNP Data Center, Cisco Certified DevNet Professional, and Cisco Certified Specialist – Data Center SAN Implementation certifications. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of implementing Data Center automated solutions, including programming concepts, orchestration and automation tools.
The Automating and Programming Cisco Service Provider Solutions v1.0 (SPAUTO 300-535) exam is a 90-minute exam associated with the CCNP Service Provider, Cisco Certified DevNet Professional, and Cisco Certified DevNet Specialist – Service Provider Automation and Programmability certifications. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of implementing service provider automated solutions, including programming concepts, orchestration, programming OS, and automation tools. The course, Implementing Cisco Service Provider Automation Solutions, helps candidates to prepare for this exam.
The Automating and Programming Cisco Security Solutions v1.0 (SAUTO 300-735) exam is a 90-minute exam associated with the CCNP Security, Cisco Certified DevNet Professional, and Cisco Certified DevNet Specialist – Security Automation and Programmability certifications. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of implementing Security automated solutions, including programming concepts, RESTful APIs, data models, protocols, firewalls, web, DNS, cloud and email security, and ISE. The course, Implementing Cisco Security Automation Solutions, helps candidates to prepare for this exam.
The Implementing DevOps Solutions and Practices Using Cisco Platforms v1.0 (DEVOPS 300-910) exam is a 90-minute exam associated with the Cisco Certified DevNet Professional and Cisco Certified DevNet Specialist – DevOps certifications. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of DevOps practices as it pertains to deployment automation that enables automated configuration, management, and scalability of cloud microservices and infrastructure processes on Cisco platforms. The course, Implementing DevOps Solutions and Practices Using Cisco Platforms, helps candidates prepare for this exam.
The Developing Solutions Using Cisco IoT & Edge Platforms v1.0 (DEVIOT 300-915) exam is a 90-minute exam that is associated with the Cisco Certified DevNet Professional and Cisco Certified DevNet Specialist – IoT certifications. This exam tests a candidate’s IoT application development knowledge as it pertains to Cisco IoT edge compute and network architecture including Cisco IOx and Cisco EFM, IoT Data Visualization, and security methods. The course, Developing Solutions using Cisco IoT & Edge Platforms, helps candidates to prepare for this exam.
The Developing Applications for Cisco Webex and Webex Devices v1.0 (DEVWBX 300-920) exam is a 90-minute exam associated with the Cisco Certified DevNet Professional and Cisco Certified DevNet Specialist – Webex certifications. This exam tests a candidate’s Webex development knowledge as it pertains to Webex API foundations, Webex Meetings, WebEx Devices, messaging, embedding Webex, and administration and compliance. The course, Developing Applications for Cisco Webex and Webex Devices, helps candidates to prepare for this exam.
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This exam tests your knowledge and skills related to:
Network fundamentals
Network access
IP connectivity
IP services
Security fundamentals
Automation and programmability
Latest Updates Cisco 200-301 Exam Practice Questions and Answers
QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.
Based on the LACP neighbor status, in which mode is the SW1 port-channel configured? A. mode on B. active C. passive D. auto
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Which type of wireless encryption is used for WPA2 in pre-shared key mode? A. AES-128 B. TKIP with RC4 C. AES-256 D. RC4
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
Which two values or settings must be entered when configuring a new WLAN in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI? (Choose two.) A. QoS settings B. The IP address of one or more access points C. SSID D. profile name E. management interface settings
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 4
Which three statements about MAC addresses are correct? (Choose three.) A. To communicate with other devices on a network, a network device must have a unique MAC address. B. The MAC address is also referred to as the IP address. C. The MAC address of a device must be configured in the Cisco IOS CLI by a user with administrative privileges. D. A MAC address contains two main components, the first of which identifies the manufacturer of the hardware and the second of which uniquely identifies the hardware. E. An example of a MAC address is 0A:26:B8: D6:65:90. F. A MAC address contains two main components, the first of which identifies the network on which the host resides and the second of which uniquely identifies the host on the network.
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
After the switch configuration, the ping test fails between PC A and PC B. Based on the output for switch 1, which error must be corrected? A. The PCs are in the incorrect VLAN. B. All VLANs are not enabled on the trunk. C. Access mode is configured on the switch ports. D. There is a native VLAN mismatch.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.
An extended ACL has been configured and applied to router R2. The configuration failed to work as intended. Which two changes stop outbound traffic on TCP ports 25 and 80 to 10.0.20.0/26 from the 10.0.10.0/26 subnet while still allowing all other traffic? (Choose two.) A. Add a “permit ip any any” statement at the end of ACL 101 for allowed traffic. B. Add a “permit ip any any” statement to the beginning of ACL 101 for allowed traffic. C. The ACL must be moved to the Gi0/1 interface outbound on R2. D. The source and destination IPs must be swapped in ACL 101. E. The ACL must be configured the Gi0/2 interface inbound on R1.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 7
Which network allows devices to communicate without the need to access the Internet? A. 172.9.0.0/16 B. 172.28.0.0/16 C. 192.0.0.0/8 D. 209.165.201.0/24
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Which statement about Link Aggregation when implementing a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller is true? A. The EtherChannel must be configured in “mode active”. B. When enabled, the WLC bandwidth drops to 500 Mbps. C. To pass client traffic, two or more ports must be configured. D. One functional physical port is needed to pass client traffic.
Which two conditions must be met before SSH can operate normally on a Cisco IOS switch? (Choose two.) A. IP routing must be enabled on the switch. B. A console password must be configured on the switch. C. Telnet must be disabled on the switch. D. The switch must be running a k9 (crypto) IOS image. E. The IP domain-name command must be configured on the switch.
Which API is used in controller-based architectures to interact with edge devices? A. southbound B. overlay C. northbound D. underlay
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
Which two outcomes are predictable behaviors for HSRP? (Choose two.) A. The two routers negotiate one router as the active router and the other as the standby router. B. The two routers share the same interface IP address, and default gateway traffic is load-balanced between them. C. The two routers synchronize configurations to provide consistent packet forwarding. D. Each router has a different IP address, both routers act as the default gateway on the LAN, and traffic is load balanced between them. E. The two routers share a virtual IP address that is used as the default gateway for devices on the LAN.
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 12
AAA stands for authentication, authorization, and accounting A. False B. True
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
An organization has decided to start using cloud-provided services. Which cloud service allows the organization to install its own operating system on a virtual machine? A. platform-as-a-service B. network-as-a-service C. software-as-a-service D. infrastructure-as-a-service
Correct Answer: D
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This exam is part one of a series of two exams that test the skills and knowledge necessary to design, implement, and maintain a Windows Server 2012 infrastructure in an enterprise scaled, highly virtualized environment. Passing this exam validates a candidate’s ability to plan, configure, and implement the Windows Server 2012 services, such as server deployment, server virtualization, and network access and infrastructure. Passing this exam along with the other exam confirms that a candidate has the skills and knowledge necessary for designing, deploying, and maintaining infrastructure services in a Windows Server 2012 environment.
Skills measured
Plan and deploy a server infrastructure (20–25%)
Design and implement network infrastructure services (20–25%)
Design and implement network access services (15–20%)
Design and implement an Active Directory infrastructure (logical) (20–25%)
Design and implement an Active Directory infrastructure (physical) (20–25%)
Latest Updates Microsoft 70-413 Exam Practice Questions and Answers
QUESTION 1
Your network contains five servers that run Windows Server 2012 R2. You install the Hyper-V server role on the servers. You create an external virtual network switch on each server. You plan to deploy five virtual machines to each Hyper-V server. Each virtual machine will have a virtual network adapter that is connected to the external virtual network switch and that has a VLAN identifier of 1. Each virtual machine will run Windows Server 2012 R2. All of the virtual machines will run an identical web application. You plan to install the Network Load Balancing (NLB) feature on each virtual machine and join each virtual machine to an NLB cluster. The cluster will be configured to use unicast only. You need to ensure that the NLB feature can distribute connections across all of the virtual machines. Solution: On each Hyper-V server, you create a new private virtual network switch. From the properties of each virtual machine, you add a second virtual network adapter and connect the new virtual network adapters to the new private virtual network switches. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. You plan to deploy 200 new physical servers during the next 12 months by using Windows Deployment Services (WDS). You identify four server builds for the 200 servers as shown in the following table.
You need to recommend the minimum number of images that must be created for the planned deployment. How many images should you recommend? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
Correct Answer: A
Only one image is required. You can convert Core mode Windows Server 2012 to a Full (GUI) Windows Server 2012 with powershell through: Install-WindowsFeature Server-Gui-Mgmt-Infra,Server-Gui-Shell -Restart
QUESTION 3
Your network contains an Active Directory domain. The domain contains 10 file servers. The file servers connect to a Fibre Channel SAN. You plan to implement 20 Hyper-V hosts in a failover cluster. The Hyper-V hosts will not have host bus adapters (HBAs). You need to recommend a solution for the planned implementation that meets the following requirements: The virtual machines must support live migration. The virtual hard disks (VHDs) must be stored on the file servers. Which two technologies achieve the goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. A. Cluster Shared Volume (CSV) B. An NFS share C. Storage pools D. SMB 3.0 shares
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 4
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The network has an Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) infrastructure. You need to issue a certificate to users to meet the following requirements: Ensure that the users can encrypt files by using Encrypting File System (EFS). Ensure that all of the users reenroll for their certificate every six months. Solution: From the properties of the Basic EFS template, you assign the Allow – Enroll permission to the Authenticated Users group. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
You need to configure DNS for the Dublin office. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 6
Your network contains 50 servers that run Windows Server 2003 and 50 servers that run Windows Server 2008. You plan to implement Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to create a report that includes the following information: The servers that run applications and services that can be moved to Windows Server 2012 R2 The servers that have hardware that can run Windows Server 2012 R2 The servers that are suitable to be converted to virtual machines hosted on Hyper- V hosts that run Windows Server 2012 R2 Solution: From an existing server, you run the Microsoft Application Compatibility Toolkit (ACT). Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: ACT is not the correct tool in this scenario. Note: With the ACT, you can: Analyze your portfolio of applications, websites, and computers Evaluate operating system deployments, the impact of operating system updates, and your compatibility with websites Centrally manage compatibility evaluators and configuration settings Rationalize and organize applications, websites, and computers Prioritize application compatibility efforts with filtered reporting Add and manage issues and solutions for your enterprise computing environment Deploy automated mitigations to known compatibility issues Send and receive compatibility information from the Microsoft Compatibility Exchange Reference: Application Compatibility Toolkit (ACT) https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/windows/desktop/dd562082(v=vs.85).aspx
QUESTION 7
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains four servers on a test network. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
You perform the following tasks: On Server2, you create an advanced SMB share named Share2A and an application SMB share named Share2B. On Server3, you create an advanced SMB share named Share3. On Server4, you create an application SMB share named Share4. You add Server3 and Server4 to a new failover cluster named Clus1. On Clus1, you configure the File Server for general use role, you create a quick SMB share named Share5A, and then you create an application SMB share named Share5B. You plan to create a failover cluster of two virtual machines hosted on Server1. The clustered virtual machines will use shared .vhdx files. You need to recommend a location to store the shared .vhdx files. Where should you recommend placing the virtual hard disk (VHD)? A. \Server3\Share3 B. \Server2\Share2B C. \Clus1\Share5B D. \Server4\Share4
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
Your company is a hosting provider that provides cloud-based services to multiple customers. Each customer has its own Active Directory forest located in your company\’s datacenter. You plan to provide VPN access to each customer. The VPN solution will use RADIUS for authentication services and accounting services. You need to recommend a solution to forward authentication and accounting messages from the perimeter network to the Active Directory forest of each customer. What should you recommend? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer. A. One RADIUS proxy for each customer and Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) B. A RADIUS server for each customer and one RADIUS proxy C. One RADIUS proxy and one Active Directory Lightweight Directory Services (AD LDS) instance for each customer D. A RADIUS server for each customer and a RADIUS proxy for each customer
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: One RADIUS proxy and several RADIUS servers. You want to provide RADIUS authentication and authorization for outsourced service providers and minimize intranet firewall configuration. An intranet firewall is between your perimeter network (the network between your intranet and the Internet) and intranet. By placing an NPS server on your perimeter network, the firewall between your perimeter network and intranet must allow traffic to flow between the NPS server and multiple domain controllers. By replacing the NPS server with an NPS proxy, the firewall must allow only RADIUS traffic to flow between the NPS proxy and one or multiple NPS servers within your intranet.
A company has a single-forest and single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain named Fabrikam.com that runs Windows 2012 Server. The AD DS forest functional level and the domain functional level are both set to Windows 2008 R2. You use IP Address Management (IPAM) as the IP management solution. You have two DHCP servers named DHCP1 and DHCP2, and one IPAM server named IPAM1. The company plans to acquire a company named Contoso, Ltd., which has a single-forest and single-domain AD DS named contoso.com. The forest functional level and domain functional level of Contoso.com is set to Windows 2008. All servers at Contoso run Windows Server 2008. The IP management solution at Contoso is based on a single DHCP server named SERVER3.
The total number of users in both companies will be 5000. You have the following requirements: The solution must be able to allocate up to three IP addresses per user. All IP address leases must be renewed every two days. You need to ensure that the corresponding servers will have enough capacity to store six years of IP utilization data and eight months of event catalog data. What should you recommend? A. Add at least 20 GB of storage to the IPAM server. B. Migrate Contoso.com to Fabrikam.com. C. Establish a forest trust between Contoso.com and Fabrikam.com. D. Upgrade SERVER3 to Windows Server 2012.
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains three VLANs. The VLANs are configured as shown in the following table.
All client computers run either Windows 7 or Windows 8. Goal: You need to implement a solution to ensure that only the client computers that have all of the required security updates installed can connect to VLAN 1. The solution must ensure that all other client computers connect to VLAN 3. Solution: You implement the 802.1x Network Access Protection (NAP) enforcement method. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: NAP supports a variety of what we call enforcement methods. In the NAP space, and enforcement method is simply a term that defines the way a machine connects to a network. In NAP, these are DHCP, 802.1x (wired or wireless), VPN, IPsec, or via a Terminal Services Gateway.
QUESTION 11
Your network contains two data centers named DataCenter1 and DataCenter2. The two data centers are connected by using a low-latency high-speed WAN link. Each data center contains multiple Hyper-V hosts that run Windows Server 2012. All servers connect to a Storage Area Network (SAN) in their local data center. You plan to implement 20 virtual machines that will be hosted on the Hyper-V hosts. You need to recommend a hosting solution for virtual machines. The solution must meet the following requirements: Virtual machines must be available automatically on the network if a single Hyper- V host fails. Virtual machines must be available automatically on the network if a single data center fails. What should you recommend? A. One failover cluster in DataCenter1 and Hyper-V replicas to DataCenter2 B. One failover cluster in DataCenter2 and one DFS Replication group in DataCenter1 C. One failover cluster that spans both data centers and SAN replication between the data centers D. One failover cluster and one Distributed File System (DFS) Replication group in each data center
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The network has an Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) infrastructure. You need to issue a certificate to users to meet the following requirements: Ensure that the users can encrypt files by using Encrypting File System (EFS). Ensure that all of the users reenroll for their certificate every six months. Solution: From the properties of the User certificate template, you assign the Allow – Enroll permission to the Authenticated Users group. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named northwindtraders.com. The client computers in the finance department run either Windows 8.1, Windows 8, or Windows 7. All of the client computers in the marketing department run Windows 8.1. You need to design a Network Access Protection (NAP) solution for northwindtraders.com that meets the following requirements: The client computers in the finance department that run Windows 7 must have a firewall enabled and the antivirus software must be up-to-date. The finance computers that run Windows 8.1 or Windows 8 must-have automatic updating enabled and the antivirus software must be up-to-date. The client computers in the marketing department must have automatic updating enabled and the antivirus software must be up-to-date. If a computer fails to meet its requirements, the computers must be provided access to a limited set of resources on the network. If a computer meets its requirements, the computer must have full access to the network. What is the minimum number of objects that you should create to meet the requirements? To answer, select the appropriate number for each object type in the answer area Hot Area:
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
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Latest Citrix CCP-V 1Y0-311 exam pdf free download
QUESTION 2 A Citrix Engineer plans to use versioning to update a vDisk, named win2016dev.vhdx, which is currently located in the development Store. What will the file name be when the engineer creates the new version of the vDisk? A. win2016dev ?Copy.vhdx B. win2016dev.1.avhdx C. win2016dev.1.vhdx D. win2016dev.avhdx Correct Answer: C Reference https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/provisioning/current-release/manage/managing-vdisks/vdisks-update.html
QUESTION 3 A Citrix Engineer needs to implement Workspace Environment Management (WEM) in an existing XenDesktop environment. Which three software requirements should the engineer consider before implementing WEM? (Choose three.) A. A minimum of .NET Framework 4.0 for the Agent Host and Administration Console B. The Windows Server 2008 R2 or later requirement for the Administrative Console C. A minimum of Citrix License Server version 11.14 D. WEM implementation with any version of XenApp or XenDesktop E. The Microsoft Sync Framework 2.1 requirement on all components Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 4 Scenario: An application that renders locally and creates a large number of temporary files on the local drive is installed on the Desktop OS machines. A Citrix Engineer creates a vDisk in Private mode with this application installed. The engineer is in the process of updating a vDisk from Private mode to Standard mode and needs to determine the write cache type. Which cache type would provide the best performance in this scenario? A. Cache on server B. Cache on server persisted C. Cache in device RAM with overflow on the hard disk D. Cache on device hard drive Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5 Scenario: A Citrix Engineer recently implemented a Provisioning Services pilot environment, which still has all the default configurations and uses a standalone SQL Server Express machine to host the Farm database. Management would like the engineer to expand the environmental so that it can be used to support several critical use cases within the organization. The farm database must meet these requirements: -The solution must ensure that production users are NOT impacted in the event of a database outage. -The solution must NOT require manual administrator intervention. -No additional funding is available to accomplish this objective. Which configuration will meet all the requirements of the scenario? A. SQL AlwaysOn Availability Group B. Offline database support C. SQL Mirroring D. SQL Clustering Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 Users accessing a XenApp hosted desktop by means of thin client devices can see a new network printer that has been provisioned by the administrator using the session printers policy but is unable to print to this printer. What can the Does the administrator do resolve this? A. Enable the auto-create of all client printers policy. B. Add the new printer to the session printers policy. C. Verify that the new printer has been added to the default printer policy. D. Install the correct printer driver on the XenApp servers and the print server. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7 Which three privileges must the service user account have to run the Stream and SOAP services in Provisioning Services? (Choose three.) A. Access to Program Files\Citrix\Provisioning Services B. Run as service C. Registry write access D. Read and write access to any vDisk location E. Access to C:\Windows\System32 Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 8 Scenario: A Citrix Engineer is managing an existing XenDesktop and Workspace Environment Management (WEM) infrastructure. The engineer performed recent benchmarks on all the user applications. As a result of this investigation, the engineer sees that a small number of user applications are experiencing random high CPU spikes, causing overall performance degradation within user sessions. Which step can the engineer take to improve the overall performance within the user sessions? A. Enable CPU Usage Limit and Idle Priority Time B. Enable CPU Usage Limit and Exclude Specified Processes C. Enable CPU Usage Limit and Intelligent CPU Optimization D. Enable Process Affinity and Exclude Specified Processes Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 Scenario: A Citrix Engineer is managing a Provisioning Services Farm with the following specifications: – A single Farm with one Site, with two Provisioning Services servers deployed with 8 vCPU each, which are supporting a total of 500 target devices in production. The ports and threads have been configured so that each server can stream concurrently to 250 devices each. -Due to an upcoming merger, 250 more target devices must be supported by the existing Provisioning Services farm. -The Provisioning Services servers must handle the extra capacity while aligning to Citrix leading practices for resiliency. Which step should the engineer perform to accomplish these requirements? A. Isolate the Provisioning Services streaming traffic. B. Add two additional Provisioning Services servers to the Site. C. Maintain the existing configurations for the environment. D. Add one additional Provisioning Services server to the Site. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10 In which order must a Citrix Engineer install the required components to prepare the master device after installing the Windows operating system? A. Target device software, device drivers, service pack updates B. Service pack updates, device drivers, target device software C. Device drivers, service pack updates, target device software D. Device drivers, target device software, service pack updates Correct Answer: C Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/provisioning/current-release/install/target-image-prepare.html
QUESTION 11 Users complain that it is taking longer to access applications now than it did last week. What is the best way to determine what changed from last week to this week? A. Review Configuration Logging data. B. ReviewEdgeSight troubleshooting data. C. Review EdgeSight Active Application Monitoring data. D. A review published application properties from a previous version of the datastore with the current version. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12 Which two components should a Citrix Engineer include in an operating system layer from a gold image? (Choose two.) A. Microsoft office plug-ins B. Printer settings C. Application patches D. Hypervisor tools E. Anti-virus Correct Answer: CD
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Latest Updates Citrix 1Y0-204 Exam Practice Questions and Answers
QUESTION 1 A master image that will be used to deploy machines for a Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops environment should have the ___________ installed on it so that ___________. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.) A. Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA); users can access resources on the machines B. Citrix Workspace app; users can access resources on the machines C. Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA); machines can communicate with the Site database D. Citrix Workspace app; machines can communicate with the Site database Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 Which Citrix Director view will allow a Citrix Administrator to view data on the current CPU, as well as memory and disk latency for a machine running the Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA)? A. Capacity Management B. Load Evaluator Index C. Resource Utilization D. Machine Utilization Correct Answer: C Reference: https://support.citrix.com/article/CTX224699
QUESTION 3 A Citrix Administrator needs to block access to multiple URLs for security reasons. Which configuration should the administrator use to accomplish this requirement?
A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 Scenario: A Citrix Administrator has given permissions to team members to access their own admin partition, so they can add resources for different departments and manage them without making changes to the default Citrix ADC partition and configuration. One team member was trying to use the command-line interface to troubleshoot an authentication issue and cloud NOT use aaad.debug. However, the team member has full permissions on the admin partition. What can be the cause of this issue? A. The team member does NOT have permission to use the CLI. B. The team member does NOT have Shell access by design. C. The team member needs to troubleshoot the issue from the GUI. D. The team member is NOT using the CLI correctly. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 How can a Citrix Administrator enable the ability to monitor application failures for Desktop OS machines running the Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA)? A. By installing an Application Probe Agent on the Desktop OS VDA machines B. By entering a PowerShell command on a Delivery Controller C. By upgrading to premium licenses D. By configuring a Citrix policy Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7 A user calls the help desk to report that when launching any application from within their published desktop session, it takes a long time and the overall performance is poor. Which Citrix Director report can a Citrix Administrator use to initiate the investigation of the issue? A. Machine Utilization in Machine Details B. Launch Failures in Trends C. Load Evaluator in Trends D. Session Data in Filters Correct Answer: C Reference: https://www.citrix.com/blogs/2014/09/22/citrix-director-trends-explained/
QUESTION 8 Which set of resources can a Citrix Administrator contain within a resource location in a Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops service deployment? A. Citrix ADC, Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA), Active Directory Domain, Hypervisor B. Citrix ADC, StoreFront, Citrix Director, Citrix Provisioning C. Citrix ADC, Delivery Controller, Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA), Active Directory Domain D. Citrix ADC, Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA), StoreFront, Database Correct Answer: A Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/citrix-virtual-apps-desktops-service.html
QUESTION 9 Scenario: A Citrix Administrator is concerned about the number of health checks the Citrix ADC is sending to the backend resources. The administrator would like to find a way to remove health checks from specific bound services. How can the administrator accomplish this? A. Use reverse condition monitoring. B. Use the No-Monitor option. C. Unbind the current monitor. D. Use Service Groups to minimize health checks. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11 Scenario: Client connections to certain virtual servers are abnormally high. A Citrix Administrator needs to be alerted whenever the connections pass a certain threshold. How can the administrator use Citrix Application Delivery Management to accomplish this requirement? A. Configure TCP Insight on the Citrix Application Delivery Management. B. Configure specific alerts for virtual servers using Citrix Application Delivery Management. C. Configure SMTP Reporting on the Citrix Application Delivery Management by adding the threshold and email address. D. Configure Network Reporting on the Citrix Application Delivery Management by setting the threshold and email address. Correct Answer: D Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/netscaler-mas/12/network-reporting.html
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