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QUESTION 1 After IT department goals have been aligned with enterprise goals, the NEXT step is to link the alignment goals with: A. governance and management objectives. B. governance and management practices. C. governance and management performance metrics. Correct Answer: A Reference: https://wiki.process-symphony.com.au/tag/cobit2019/page/4/
QUESTION 4 Which of the following BEST enables an enterprise to maximize value from its use? A. A clearly defined and management structure B. An actionable strategy and governance system C. Well-documented and monitored business processes Correct Answer: B To create value, the enterprise must balance benefits, risk, and resources, and develop an actionable strategy and governance system. Reference: https://www.testpreptraining.com/tutorial/governance-system-principles/
QUESTION 7 Which of the following is a CRITICAL requirement when the IT function is strategic and crucial to the success of the business? A. Documented IT policies and procedures B. High involvement of IT-related roles in organizational structures C. Highly capable of security-related processes and ensured risk optimization Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 One year after IT governance is implemented, what KEY question should be asked and evaluated? A. Has the enterprise leveraged lessons learned? B. Has the enterprise reduced its risk exposure? C. Has the enterprise achieved expected benefits? Correct Answer: C Reference: https://www.bauer.uh.edu/parks/cobit_4.1.pdf (98)
QUESTION 9 Which of the following would be an appropriate metric associated with an enterprise goal of “Business service continuity and availability”? A. Satisfaction levels of the board and executive management with business process capabilities B. Ratio of significant incidents that were not identified in risk assessments vs. total incidents C. Number of business processing hours lost due to unplanned service interruptions Correct Answer: C Reference: https://www.oo2.fr/sites/default/files/document/pdf/cobit-5_res_eng_1012.pdf (58)
QUESTION 10 Which of the following benefits derived from the use of COBIT is PRIMARILY associated with an external stakeholder? A. COBIT provides guidance on how to organize and monitor the performance of and across the enterprise. B. COBIT helps to manage the dependency on the use of external service providers. C. COBIT helps to ensure compliance with applicable rules and regulations. Correct Answer: A Reference: https://www.cio.com/article/3243684/what-is-cobit-a-framework-for-alignment-andgovernance.html
QUESTION 11 Which of the following components of a governance system are MOST likely to be underestimated as factors in the success of governance and management activities? A. Culture, ethics and behavior B. People, skills, and competencies C. Principles, policies, and frameworks Correct Answer: A Reference: https://graser.co.at/cobit-5-understand-the-framework-2/
QUESTION 12 Which of the following is MOST important to providing trust in operations, confidence in the achievement of enterprise objectives, and an adequate understanding of residual risk? A. A continuity of operations response plan B. A risk management framework C. A managed system of internal controls Correct Answer: C Reference: https://wiki.process-symphony.com.au/tag/cobit2019/page/4/
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QUESTION 1 In planning an audit, the MOST critical step is the identification of the: A. areas of high risk. B. skill sets of the audit staff. C. test steps in the audit. D. time allotted for the audit. Correct Answer: A When designing an audit plan, it is important to identify the areas of highest risk to determine the areas to be audited. The skill sets of the audit staff should have been considered before deciding and selecting the audit. Test steps for the audit is not as critical as identifying the areas of risk, and the time allotted for an audit is determined by the areas to be audited, which are primarily selected based on the identification of risks.
QUESTION 2 Attribute sampling is BEST suited to estimate: A. compliance with approved procedures. B. the true monetary value of a population. C. the total error amount in the population. D. whether a recorded balance is within limits of materiality. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 Following best practices, formal plans for implementation of new information systems are developed during the: A. development phase. B. design phase. C. testing phase. D. deployment phase. Correct Answer: B Planning for implementation should begin well in advance of the actual implementation date. Formal implementation of the plan should be constructed in the design phase and revised as the development progresses.
QUESTION 4 Which of the following cryptography options would increase overhead/cost? A. The encryption is symmetric rather than asymmetric. B. A long asymmetric encryption key is used. C. The hash is encrypted rather than the message. D. A secret key is used. Correct Answer: B Computer processing time is increased for longer asymmetric encryption keys, and the increase may be disproportionate. For example, one benchmark showed that doubling the length of an RSA key from 512 bits to 1,024 bits caused the decrypt time to increase nearly six-fold. An asymmetric algorithm requires more processing time than symmetric algorithms. A hash is shorter than the original message; therefore, a smaller overhead is required if the hash is encrypted rather than the message. The use of a secret key, as the asymmetric encryption key, is generally small and used for the purpose of encrypting user data.
QUESTION 5 An IS auditor performing a review of the backup processing facilities should be MOST concerned that: A. adequate fire insurance exists. B. regular hardware maintenance is performed. C. offsite storage of transaction and master files exists. D. backup processing facilities are fully tested. Correct Answer: C Adequate fire insurance and fully tested backup processing facilities are important elements for recovery, but without the offsite storage of transaction and master files, it is generally impossible to recover. Regular hardware maintenance does not relate to recovery.
QUESTION 6 While reviewing an organization\\’s business continuity plan (BCP), an IS auditor observes that a recently developed application is not included. The IS auditor should: A. ensure that the criticality of the application is determined. B. ignore the observation as the application is not mission-critical. C. include in the audit findings that the BCP is incomplete. D. recommend that the application be incorporated in the BCP. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7 To determine if unauthorized changes have been made to the production code the BEST audit procedure is to: A. examine the change control system records and trace them forward to object code files. B. review access control permissions operating within the production program libraries. C. examine object code to find instances of changes and trace them back to change control records. D. reviews change-approved designations established within the change control system. Correct Answer: C The procedure of examining object code files to establish instances of code changes and tracing these back to change control system records is a substantive test that directly addresses the risk of unauthorized code changes. The other choices are valid procedures to apply in a change control audit but they do not directly address the risk of unauthorized code changes.
QUESTION 8 Which of the following type of an IDS resides on important systems like database, critical servers and monitors various internal resources of an operating system? A. Signature-based IDS B. Host-based IDS C. Network-based IDS D. Statistical based IDS Correct Answer: B Host-Based IDS resides on important systems like database, critical servers, and monitors various internal resources of an operating system. Also, you should know the below-mentioned categories and types of IDS for the CISA exam An IDS works in conjunction with routers and firewalls by monitoring network usage anomalies. Broad categories of IDS include: 1. Network-Based IDS 2. Host-Based IDS Network-Based IDS They identify attacks within the monitored network and issue a warning to the operator. If a network-based IDS is placed between the Internet and the firewall, it will detect all the attack attempts whether or not they enter the firewall Network-Based IDS are blinded when dealing with encrypted traffic Host-Based IDS They are configured for a specific environment and will monitor various internal resources of the operating system to warn of a possible attack. They can detect the modification of executable programs, detect the detection of files and issue a warning when an attempt is made to use a privileged account. They can monitor traffic after it is decrypted and they supplement the Network-Based IDS. Types of IDS include: Statistical Based IDS ? This system needs a comprehensive definition of the known and expected behavior of system Neural Network? An IDS with this feature monitors the general patterns of activity and traffic on the network and creates a database. This is similar to the statistical model but with added self-learning functionality. Signature Based IDS ? These IDS systems protect against detected intrusion patterns. The intrusive pattern they can identify are stored in the form of a signature. The following were incorrect answers: The other types of IDS mentioned in the options do not reside on important systems like database and critical servers Reference: CISA review manual 2014 Page number 346 and 347
QUESTION 9 The logical exposure associated with the use of a checkpoint restart procedure is: A. denial of service. B. an asynchronous attack C. wiretapping. D. computer shutdown. Correct Answer: B Asynchronous attacks are operating system-based attacks. A checkpoint restart is a feature that stops a program at specified intermediate points for later restart in an orderly manner without losing data at the checkpoint. The operating system saves a copy of the computer programs and data in their current state as well as several system parameters describing the model and security level of the program at the time of the stoppage. An asynchronous attack occurs when an individual with access to this information is able to gain access to the checkpoint restart copy of the system parameters and change those parameters such that upon restart the program would function at a higher-priority security level.
QUESTION 10 An IS auditor has identified the lack of an authorization process for users of an application. The IS auditor\\’s main concern should be that: A. more than one individual can claim to be a specific user. B. there is no way to limit the functions assigned to users. C. user accounts can be shared. D. users have a need-to-know privilege. Correct Answer: B Without an appropriate authorization process, it will be impossible to establish functional limits and accountability. The risk that more than one individual can claim to be a specific user is associated with the authentication processes, rather than with authorization. The risk that user accounts can be shared is associated with identification processes, rather than with authorization. The need-to-know basis is the best approach to assigning privileges during the authorization process.
QUESTION 11 A development team has designed a new application and incorporated best practices for secure coding. Prior to launch, which of the following is the IS auditor\\’s BEST recommendation to mitigate the associated security risk? A. User acceptance testing B. Unit testing C. Integration testing D. Penetration testing Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12 Which of the following is the MAIN purpose of an information security management system? A. To enhance the impact of reports used to monitor information security incidents B. To reduce the frequency and impact of information security incidents C. To identify and eliminate the root causes of information security incidents D. To keep information security policies and procedures up-to-date Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13 Which of the following MOST effectively prevent internal users from modifying sensitive data? A. Network segmentation B. Multi-factor authentication C. Acceptable use policies D. Role-based access controls Correct Answer: D
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QUESTION 1 Mandatory Access Controls (MAC) are based on: A. security classification and security clearance B. data segmentation and data classification C. data labels and user access permissions D. user roles and data encryption Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 Which of the following BEST describles a protection profile (PP)? A. A document that expresses an implementation independent set of security requirements for an Information Technology (IT) product that meets specific consumer needs. B. A document that expresses an implementation dependent set of security retirements which contains only the security functional requirements. C. A document that represents evaluated products where there is a one-to-one correspondence between a PP and a Security Target (ST). D. A document that is used to develop an Information Technology (IT) security product from Its security requirements definition. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 Which of the following is the MOST important output from a mobile application threat modeling exercise according to Open Web Application Security Project (OWASP)? A. The likelihood and impact of a vulnerability B. Application interface entry and endpoints C. Countermeasures and mitigations for vulnerabilities D. A data flow diagram for the application and attack surface analysis Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4 Functional security testing is MOST critical during which phese of the system development Life Cycle (SDLC)? A. Acquisition / Development B. Operations / Maintenance C. Implementation D. Initiation Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5 Which of the following attributes could be used to describe a protection mechanism of an open design methodology? A. lt must be tamperproof to protect it from malicious attacks. B. It can facilitate independent confirmation of the design security. C. It can facilitate black box penetration testing. D. It exposes the design to vulnerabilities and malicious attacks. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 What is the MOST important step during forensic analysis when trying to learn the purpose of an unknown application? A. Disable all unnecessary services B. Ensure chain of custody C. Prepare another backup of the system D. Isolate the system from the network Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7 An organization has discovered that users are visiting unauthorized websites using anonymous proxies. Which of the following is the BEST way to prevent future occurrences? A. Remove the anonymity from the proxy B. Analyze Internet Protocol (IP) traffic for proxy requests C. Disable the proxy server on the firewall D. Block the Internet Protocol (IP) address of known anonymous proxies Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8 Which of the following processes is used to align security controls with business functions? A. Data mapping B. Standards selection C. Scoping D. Tailoring Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9 Functional security testing is MOST critical during which phase of the system development life cycle (SDLC)? A. Operations / Maintenance B. Implementation C. Acquisition / Development D. Initiation Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10 Network-based logging has which advantage over host-based logging when reviewing malicious activity about a victim machine? A. Addresses and protocols of network-based logs are analyzed. B. Host-based system logging has files stored in multiple locations. C. Properly handled network-based logs may be more reliable and valid. D. Network-based systems cannot capture users logging into the console. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11 In Disaster Recovery (DR) and Business Continuity (DC) training, which BEST describes a functional drill? A. a functional evacuation of personnel B. a specific test by response teams of individual emergency response functions C. an activation of the backup site D. a full-scale simulation of an emergency and the subsequent response functions. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12 Which of the following steps should be performed FIRST when purchasing Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS) software? A. undergo a security assessment as part of authorization process B. establish a risk management strategy C. harden the hosting server, and perform hosting and application vulnerability scans D. establish policies and procedures on system and services acquisition Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13 Which of the following operates at the Network Layer of the Open System Interconnection (OSI) model? A. Packet filtering B. Port services filtering C. Content filtering D. Application access control Correct Answer: A
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QUESTION 1 The CFO found a USB drive in the parking lot and decide to plug it into their corporate laptop. The USB drive had malware on it that loaded onto their computer and then contacted a known command and control (CnC) server, which ordered the infected machine to begin Exfiltrating data from the laptop. A. Create an anti-spyware profile and enable DNS Sinkhole B. Create an antivirus profile and enable DNS Sinkhole C. Create a URL filtering profile and block the DNS Sinkhole category D. Create a security policy and enable DNS Sinkhole Correct Answer: A Reference: https://docs.paloaltonetworks.com/pan-os/7-1/pan-os-web-interface-help/objects/objects-security-profilesanti-spyware-profile
QUESTION 2 Which file is used to save the running configuration with a Palo Alto Networks firewall? A. running-config.xml B. run-config.xml C. running-configuration.xml D. run-configuratin.xml Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 Which option shows the attributes that are selectable when setting up application filters? A. Category, Subcategory, Technology, and Characteristic B. Category, Subcategory, Technology, Risk, and Characteristic C. Name, Category, Technology, Risk, and Characteristic D. Category, Subcategory, Risk, Standard Ports, and Technology Correct Answer: B Reference: https://docs.paloaltonetworks.com/pan-os/7-1/pan-os-web-interface-help/objects/objects-application-filters
QUESTION 7 The CFO found a malware-infected USB drive in the parking lot, which when inserted infected their corporate laptop.the malware contacted a known command-and-control server, which caused the infected laptop to begin exfiltrating corporate data. Which security profile feature could have been used to prevent the communication with the command-and-control server? A. Create a Data Filtering Profile and enable its DNS sinkhole feature. B. Create an Antivirus Profile and enable its DNS sinkhole feature. C. Create an Anti-Spyware Profile and enable its DNS sinkhole feature. D. Create a URL Filtering Profile and block the DNS sinkhole URL category. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11 Identify the correct order to configure the PAN-OS integrated USER-ID agent. 3. add the service account to monitor the server(s) 2. define the address of the servers to be monitored on the firewall 4. commit the configuration, and verify agent connection status 1. create a service account on the Domain Controller with sufficient permissions to execute the User-ID agent A. 2-3-4-1 B. 1-4-3-2 C. 3-1-2-4 D. 1-3-2-4 Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12 Which administrator receives a global notification for a new malware that infects hosts. The infection will result in the infected host attempting to contact and command-and-control (C2) server. Which security profile components will detect and prevent this threat after the firewall`s signature database has been updated? A. antivirus profile applied to outbound security policies B. data filtering profile applied to inbound security policies C. data filtering profile applied to outbound security policies D. vulnerability profile applied to inbound security policies Correct Answer: C
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QUESTION 1 Which document shows a detailed analysis of business impact and benefits? A. A return on investment B. Service level requirements C. A business case D. A service level agreement Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 Which of the following is NOT a benefit of using public frameworks and standards? A. Knowledge of public frameworks is more likely to be widely distributed B. They are always free ensuring they can be implemented quickly C. They are validated across a wide range of environments making them more robust D. They make collaboration between organizations easier by giving a common language Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 The multi-level SLA\\’ is a three-layer structure. Which one of the following layers is NOT part of this type of SLA? A. Customer level B. Service level C. Corporate level D. Configuration level Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4 What is defined as a cause, or potential cause, of one or more incidents? A. Change B. Event C. Known error D. Problem Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 When is it confirmed if a project\\’s objectives have been achieved? A. During the Closing a Project process B. During the final end stage assessment C. During the Controlling a Stage process D. During the Managing Product Delivery process Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 Which of the following are service transition planning and support NOT responsible for? A. Prioritizing conflicts for service transition resources B. Coordinating the efforts required to manage multiple simultaneous transitions C. Maintaining policies, standards, and models for service transition activities and processes D. Detailed planning of the build and test of individual changes Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7 Which two statements about the \\’service request management\\’ practice are CORRECT? 1. Service requests are part of normal service delivery 2. Complaints can be handled as service requests 3. Service requests result from a failure in service 4. Normal changes should be handled as service requests A. 1 and 2 B. 2 and 3 C. 3 and 4 D. 1 and 4 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 How is a service delivered between departments of the same organization classified? A. Internal service B. External service C. Mission critical service D. Organizational service Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 Which of the following are benefits to the business of implementing service transition? 1. Better reuse and sharing of assets across projects and resources 2. Reduced cost to design new services 3. Result in higher volume of successful changes A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. None of the above Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10 Which process is involved in monitoring an IT service and detecting when the performance drops below acceptable limits? A. Service asset and configuration management B. Event management C. Service catalogue management D. Problem management Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11 What BEST describes the value of continual service improvement to the business? A. It supports the creation of a portfolio of quantified services B. It results in a gradual improvement in cost-effectiveness C. It improves governance by building controls into service designs D. It provides quick and effective access to standard services Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12 Which of the following areas would technology help to support during the service lifecycle? 1. Data mining and workflow 2. Measurement and reporting 3. Release and deployment 4. Process design A. 2, 3, and 4 only B. 1, 3, and 4 only C. 1, 2, and 3 only D. All of the above Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13 Which statement about internal customers is CORRECT? A. Services are provided to internal customers under contractual agreements B. Internal customers have different organizational objectives from their service provider C. Agreed levels of service are not as important to internal customers D. Internal customers are part of the same organization as the service provider Correct Answer: D
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QUESTION 1 The first stage in the development of a crisis management program is to: A. Formulate contingency plans. B. Conduct a risk analysis. C. Create a crisis management team. D. Practice the response to a crisis. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 An internal auditor is assessing the risk of employees falsifying reimbursement requests for business- related meals or travel. Which of the following procedures would the internal auditor most likely perform first? A. Review the supplemental documentation provided for a sample of reimbursement requests. B. Interview the payroll/accounting supervisor to determine what controls exist to prevent fraud. C. Determine whether or not the payroll/accounting department has been subject to regular review. D. Establish a flowchart of the payroll/accounting functions that include any controls currently in place. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 Management has asked the chief audit executive (CAE) to provide assurance on the organization\\’s automated control system related to financial data. The current audit staff does not have the expertise needed to conduct this type of engagement. Which of the following would be the best response by the CAE? A. Accept the assignment and use control self-assessment to complete the project. B. Do not accept the assignment because the internal audit activity lacks the competency to perform the engagement with due professional care. C. Accept the assignment and use an external provider with the necessary knowledge and skills to perform the engagement. D. Accept the assignment if the engagement is included in the current audit plan, but inform senior management that the current audit staff does not have the knowledge and skills required. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 According to the International Professional Practices Framework, internal auditors should possess which of the following competencies? I. Proficiency in applying internal auditing standards, procedures, and techniques. II. Proficiency in accounting principles and techniques. III. An understanding of management principles. IV. An understanding of the fundamentals of economics, commercial law, taxation, finance, and quantitative methods. A. I only B. II only C. I and III only D. I, III, and IV only Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 When reviewing management reports to the board of directors, the internal audit activity should: A. Evaluate the process used to prepare the management reports. B. Maintain supporting documentation for the management reports. C. Tie all financial numbers in the reports to the general ledger. D. Compare to prior-period reports for consistency. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 According to the Standards, which of the following statements best describes the required content of the chief audit executive\\’s (CAE) report to senior management and the board on the internal audit activity (IAA)? A. The CAE must report on significant risk exposures, control issues, and governance issues. B. The CAE must report on policies, procedures, and best practices of the IAA. C. The CAE must report on quality assurance techniques, statistical analysis methods, and other analytical processes used. D. The CAE must report on auditors\\’ continuing education activities, staffing changes, and any outsourcing to external parties. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7 Fraud is most frequently detected by: A. Following up on tips from employees or citizens. B. Following up on analytical review of high-risk areas. C. Performing periodic reconciliations over cash and other assets. D. Performing unannounced audits or reviews of programs or departments. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 A major corporation is considering significant organizational changes. Which of the following groups would not be responsible for implementing these changes? A. Employees. B. Senior management. C. Common stockholders. D. Outside consultants. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9 Which of the following is not an appropriate control related to sales in a manufacturing company? A. Customers\\’ orders are recorded promptly. B. Goods shipped are matched with valid customer orders. C. Goods returned are inspected for damage by the sales department and then entered into inventory. D. Credit department approval is required for credit sales transactions. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10 Which of the following would provide the best evidence of errors in the quantities of items received from suppliers? A. Suppliers\\’ reports of over shipments. B. Warehouse receiving logs. C. Purchase requisitions and purchase orders. D. Observation and inspection of inventory. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11 Which of the following sources of evidence would be least persuasive regarding potential waste and inefficiency on the part of a contractor? A. The contractor\\’s certification that it has not incurred any waste or inefficiencies. B. A walk-through of the contractor\\’s manufacturing and development facilities. C. An examination of the nature of contract expenses incurred. D. A comparison of contract expenses with those of similar projects. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12 Which of the following represents the most useful function of inventory turnover analysis? A. Identifying excess inventory, including obsolete inventory. B. Determining the best supplier of raw materials based on cost comparison. C. Creating new staffing positions for inventory support. D. Developing more efficient methods for manufacturing finished products. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13 To develop greater internal auditing expertise, the chief audit executive (CAE) has been assigning the same relatively inexperienced team of internal auditors to a series of engagements spanning several months. Is this practice consistent with the Standards? A. Yes. The CAE is promoting the professional development of the staff. B. Yes. The experience will quickly build specialized skills and competencies. C. No. The team should collectively possess the competencies appropriate for the engagements. D. No. Teams should be comprised of both experienced and inexperienced auditors. Correct Answer: C
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QUESTION 1 Which combination of safe member permissions will allow End Users to log in to a remote machine transparently but NOT show or copy the password? A. Use Accounts, Retrieve Accounts, List Accounts B. Use Accounts, List Accounts C. Use Accounts D. List Accounts, Retrieve Accounts Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 If a user is a member of more than one group that has authorizations on a safe, by default that user is granted __________________. A. the vault will not allow this situation to occur. B. only those permissions that exist on the group added to the safe first. C. only those permissions that exist in all groups to which the user belongs. D. the cumulative permissions of all the groups to which that user belongs. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 What is the purpose of the password Change process? A. To test that CyberArk is storing accurate credentials for accounts B. To change the password of an account according to organizationally defined password rules C. To allow CyberArk to manage unknown or lost credentials D. To generate a new complex password Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 PSM requires the Remote Desktop Gateway role service. A. TRUE B. FALSE Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 When accessing the Vault via PVWA, is it possible, is it possible to configure multiple Dual Authentication Methods? A. Yes, all authentication methods will be configured to use the Vault integrated authentication flow. B. No, dual authentication methods are not supported. C. Yes, authentication methods will be configured to use the combination of IIS and Vault integrated authentication flow. D. Yes, all authentication methods will be configured to use the IIS integrated authentication flow. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6 It is possible to leverage DNA to provide discovery functions that are not available with auto-detection. A. TRUE B. FALSE Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7 Users complain they are unsuccessful in attempting to authenticate to the PVWA website. After entering their credentials, they receive a “Timeout has expired”. You test the URL using multiple browsers and receive the same error. The CyberArk.WebApplication.log shows the “ITACM012S Timeout has expired” log entry. What is the next troubleshooting step you should take? A. Run an IISRESET on the PVWA server B. Check the CyberArk.WebConsole.log for errors C. Check network firewall rules to ensure the PVWA can communicate to the Vault over tcp_1858 D. Check the health of the Vault Server and ensure all services are running Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8 Which of the following Privileged Session Management solutions provide a detailed audit log of session activities? A. PSM (i.e., launching connections by clicking on the “Connect” button in the PVWA) B. PSM for Windows (previously known as RDP Proxy) C. PSM for SSH (previously known as PSM SSH Proxy) D. All of the above Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 Which report shows the accounts that are accessible to each user? A. Activity Report B. Entitlement Report C. Privileged Accounts Compliance Status Report D. Applications Inventory Report Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10 The vault supports Subnet Based Access Control. A. TRUE B. FALSE Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11 The Vault needs to send SNMP traps to your SNMP solution, which file is used to configure the IP address of the SNMP server? A. snmp.ini B. dbparm.ini C. ENEConf.ini D. PARAgent.ini Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12 Which file is used to configure the ENE service? A. ENE.ini B. ENEConfig.ini C. dbparm.ini D. paragent.ini Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13 Access Control to passwords is implemented by ________________. A. Virtual Authorizations B. Safe Authorizations C. Master Policy D. Platform Settings Correct Answer: B
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QUESTION 1 What Is the FIRST step for a digital investigator to perform when using best practices to collect digital evidence from a potential crime scene? A. Consult the lead investigate to team the details of the case and required evidence. B. Assure that grounding procedures have been followed to reduce the loss of digital data due to static electricity discharge. C. Update the Basic Input Output System (BIOS) and Operating System (OS) of any tools used to assure evidence admissibility. D. Confirm that the appropriate warrants were issued to the subject of the investigation to eliminate illegal search claims. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 Detection capabilities of Host-based ID systems are limited by the incompleteness of which of the following? A. Audit log capabilities B. Event capture capabilities C. Event triage capabilities D. Audit notification capabilities Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 Which one of the following network attacks takes advantages of weaknesses in the fragment reassembly functionality of the TCP/IP protocol stack? A. Teardrop B. Smurf C. Ping of Death D. SYN flood E. SNMP Attack Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 Which of the following BEST describes Recovery Time Objective (RTO)? A. Time of application resumption after a disaster B. Time of application verification after a disaster. C. Time of data validation after a disaster. D. Time of data restoration from backup after a disaster. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 Which of the following protocols would allow an organization to maintain a centralized list of users that can read a protected webpage? A. Lightweight Directory Access Control (LDAP) B. Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) C. Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) D. Kerberos Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 Drag the following Security Engineering terms on the left to the BEST definition on the right. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 7 A health care provider is considering Internet access for their employees and patients. Which of the following is the organization\\’s MOST secure solution for the protection of data? A. Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) and digital signatures B. Trusted server certificates and passphrases C. User ID and password D. Asymmetric encryption and User ID Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 Which of the following is the MOST common method of memory protection? A. Compartmentalization B. Segmentation C. Error correction D. Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN) tagging Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9 Which of the following is an example of two-factor authentication? A. Retina scan and a palm print B. Fingerprint and a smart card C. Magnetic stripe card and an ID badge D. Password and Completely Automated Public Turing test to tell Computers and Humans Apart (CAPTCHA) Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10 Which of the following is the BEST method to reduce the effectiveness of phishing attacks? A. User awareness B. Two-factor authentication C. Anti-phishing software D. Periodic vulnerability scan Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11 Which of the following steps is performed during the forensic data analysis phase? A. Collect known system files B. search for relevant strings. C. Create file lists D. Recover deleted data. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12 A security consultant has been asked to research an organization\\’s legal obligations to protect privacy-related information. What kind of reading material is MOST relevant to this project? A. The organization\\’s current security policies concerning privacy issues B. Privacy-related regulations enforced by governing bodies applicable to the organization C. Privacy best practices published by recognized security standards organizations D. Organizational procedures designed to protect privacy information Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13 The use of private and public encryption keys is fundamental in the implementation of which of the following? A. Diffie-Hellman algorithm B. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) C. Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) D. Message Digest 5 (MD5) Correct Answer: B
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QUESTION 1 Which of the following is the MOST important difference between end-user computing (EUC) applications and traditional applications? A. Traditional application documentation is typically less comprehensive than EUC application documentation. B. Traditional applications require roll-back procedures whereas EUC applications do not. C. Traditional applications require periodic patching whereas EUC applications do not. D. Traditional application input controls are typically more robust than EUC application input controls. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration when establishing data classification standards? A. An education campaign is established upon rollout. B. Reporting metrics are established. C. Management supports the newly developed standards. D. The standards comply with relevant regulations. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 Which of the following findings should be an IS auditor\\’s GREATEST concern when reviewing an organization\\’s purchase of new IT infrastructure hardware? A. The new infrastructure arrived with default system settings. B. The new infrastructure has residual risk within the organization\\’s risk tolerance. C. The new infrastructure\\’s hardening requirements are stronger than required by policy. D. The new infrastructure has compatibility issues with existing systems. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4 An IS auditor is assigned to perform a post implementation review of an application system. Which pf the following situations may have impaired the independence of the IS auditor? The IS auditor: A. implemented a specific control during the development of the application system. B. designed an embedded audit module exclusively for auditing the application system. C. participated as a member of the application system project team, but did not have operational responsibilities. D. provided consulting advice concerning application system best practices. Correct Answer: A Independence may be impaired if an IS auditor is, or has been, actively involved in the development, acquisition and implementation of the application system. Choices B and C are situations that do not impair an IS auditor\\’s independence. Choice D is incorrect because an IS auditor\\’s independence is not impaired by providing advice on known best practices.
QUESTION 5 Confidentiality of the data transmitted in a wireless LAN is BEST protected if the session is: A. restricted to predefined MAC addresses. B. encrypted using static keys. C. encrypted using dynamic keys. D. initiated from devices that have encrypted storage. Correct Answer: C When using dynamic keys, the encryption key is changed frequently, thus reducing the risk of the key being compromised and the message being decrypted. Limiting the number of devices that can access the network does not address the issue of encrypting the session. Encryption with static keys-using the same key for a long period of timerisks that the key would be compromised. Encryption of the data on the connected device (laptop, PDA, etc.) addresses the confidentiality of the data on the device, not the wireless session.
QUESTION 6 Which of the following terms generally refers to small programs designed to take advantage of a software flaw that has been discovered? A. exploit B. patch C. quick fix D. service pack E. malware F. None of the choices. Correct Answer: A “The term “”exploit”” generally refers to small programs designed to take advantage of a software flaw that has been discovered, either remote or local. The code from the exploit program is frequently reused in trojan horses and computer viruses. In some cases, a vulnerability can lie in a certain programs processing of a specific file type, such as a nonexecutable media file.”
QUESTION 7 Parity bits are a control used to validate: A. Data authentication B. Data completeness C. Data source D. Data accuracy Correct Answer: B Parity bits are a control used to validate data completeness.
QUESTION 8 During a software acquisition review, an IS auditor should recommend that there be a software escrow agreement when: A. the estimated life for the product is less than 3 years. B. the deliverables do not include the source code. C. the product is new in the market. D. there is no service level agreement (SLA). Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9 An organization plans to implement a virtualization strategy enabling multiple operating systems on a single host. Which of the following should be the GREATEST concern with this strategy? A. Adequate storage space B. Complexity of administration C. Network bandwidth D. Application performance Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10 Which of the following is the MOST effective way for an organization to ensure its third-party service providers are aware of information security requirements and expectations? A. Providing information security training to third-party personnel B. Auditing the service delivery of third-party providers C. Inducting information security clauses within contracts D. Requiring third parties to sign confidentiality agreements Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 Upon receipt of the initial signed digital certificate the user will decrypt the certificate with the public key of the: A. registration authority (RA). B. certificate authority (CA). C. certificate repository. D. receiver. Correct Answer: B A certificate authority (CA) is a network authority that issues and manages security credentials and public keys for message encryption. As a part of the public key infrastructure, a CA checks with a registration authority (RA) to verify information provided by the requestor of a digital certificate. If the RA verifies the requestor\\’s information, the CA can issue a certificate. The CA signs the certificate with its private key for distribution to the user. Upon receipt, the user will decrypt the certificate with the CA\\’s public key.
QUESTION 12 To mitigate the risk of exposing data through application programming interface (API) queries, which of the following design considerations is MOST important? A. Data minimalization B. Data quality C. Data retention D. Data integrity Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13 An internet-based attack using password sniffing can: A. enable one party to act as if they are another party. B. cause modification to the contents of certain transactions. C. be used to gain access to systems containing proprietary information. D. result in major problems with billing systems and transaction processing agreements. Correct Answer: C Password sniffing attacks can be used to gain access to systems on which proprietary information is stored. Spoofing attacks can be used to enable one party to act as if they are another party. Data modification attacks can be used to modify the contents of certain transactions. Repudiation of transactions can cause major problems with billing systems and transaction processing agreements.
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QUESTION 1 A company has developers located in Eastern Europe (EE) and a QA Department in Bermuda. 1. The company is planning to create an environment based on a blueprint of 4-8 virtual machines for each of the developers and one for every QA project. 2. The proposed configuration will allow each developer to work independently and be able to collapse and re-create the environment as needed. 3. QA Teams will be able to recreate the environment that is required for a specific application. 4. Individual virtual machines in the blueprint are being continually updated with newly available software packages. 5. The company is planning to use the vSphere Content Library to store images and synchronize them between sites. Which four supported configurations can the company implement? (Choose four.) A. EE and Bermuda libraries that are backed by an NFS file system. B. EE and Bermuda vCenter Servers with Enhanced Linked Mode. C. FTP protocol to transfer data between published in EE and subscribed in Bermuda libraries. D. Published library in EE backed by an NFS file system while subscribed library in Bermuda is backed up by datastore. E. A minimum 10 GbE connection between EE published and Bermuda subscribed libraries is required. F. EE and Bermuda vCenter Servers without Enhanced Linked Mode. Correct Answer: ABDF You can eliminate C and E as FTP isn\\’t supported natively and without more information there is no need for a 10GbE connection. 1GbE may suffice. Not to mention a 10GbE connection between EE and Bermuda would be nearly impossible and if it even is that would be completely cost-prohibitive. At that point it\\’s cheaper to move your entire QA team to EE ?or even better, move your whole operation to Bermuda. 10Gbps is not a requirement, and you can only store the items either on VMFS or NFS: https://pubs.vmware.com/vsphe re-6-5/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.vmware.vapi.progguide.doc%2FGUID-0B234875-EEEB-4982-9FC1-4DE6B071BDC9.h tmlGreat link provided by Megalodon.
QUESTION 2 A company is consolidating its environment into vSphere 6.5, and uses a Fibre Channel SAN array to host a virtual machines. 1. It has a pair of MSCS clustered VMs with shared RDM. 2. High availability of service is its top priority. 3. It wants to ensure that performance is optimized for the cluster service. The design requirements are: 1. Storage should be able to withstand at least one component failure. 2. Each server has at least 2 ports for FC connections. 3. MSCS should also have no single point of failure with the clustering service. Which design will meet these requirements?
A. Exhibit A B. Exhibit B C. Exhibit C D. Exhibit D Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 A university is going through an IT transformation project and is re-evaluating how to use technology to provide a better academic experience for its 15,000 students. The university is a current VMware customer and has a single data center. 1. Within that data center, the university is using blade servers backed by a Fibre Channel array for its business-critical applications 2. It has two iSCSI arrays (one for the development environment and the other for the no-critical production environment) 3. The university\\’s VMware environment consists of three clusters. The first cluster contains all development virtual machines (VMs), the second cluster is dedicated to DMZ VMs, and the final cluster contains production VMs 4. The university requires the ability to perform hardware maintenance without a service interruption, and can only sustain 4 minutes of downtime per month From the list below, which three are constraints? (Choose three.) A. 99.9% uptime is required for the environment B. The Network Operation Center uses SolarWinds for all monitoring and alerting C. Blade servers must be used to consolidate space D. Provide capacity to support 20% Year-over-Year growth for the next 3 years E. There area current contracts in place with Dell to provide all server hardware Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 4 A company has a cluster consisting of 72GHZ of processor resources and has these requirements: 1. Virtual machines in the Production pool must run without contention of any CPU resources with the other pools, while Development and QA VMs do NOT share this restriction. 2. QA VMs are considered the least important in this environment. Which resource pool design would achieve the company\\’s need without introducing unnecessary contention?
A. Exhibit A B. Exhibit B C. Exhibit C D. Exhibit D Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 An architect is planning a vCenter 6.5 solution that requires the virtual machine to run Windows 2012 R2 as the operating system. 1. The solution should provide a single management interface for all of the vCenter Server installs. 2. The architect is concerned that the organization\\’s primary Oracle database server is NOT available at all of the sites where a vCenter Server will be installed and will NOT be included as an option in the design. Which two database solutions are valid options in the design document? (Choose two.) A. Microsoft SQL Server on a dedicated virtual machine B. MySQL embedded with vCenter Server C. PostgreSQL on a dedicated virtual machine D. VMware embedded PostgreSQL with vCenter Server Correct Answer: AD https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMwarevSphere/6.5/com.vmware.vsphere.install.doc/GUID-2F1D0E79-52C4-4DC2-AF01-11564207FBE1.html
QUESTION 6 A solution architect has finished conducting interviews and gathering requirements for a company and has determined that the logical requirements are: 1. two data centers for high availability 2. synchronous replication to meet the zero minute RPO 3. separating management workloads from application workloads 4. dedicated 10Gb uplink for each low latency server 5. single management point for the entire environment Which two actions would meet the design requirements? (Choose two.) A. Configure 1 Port Group with a dedicated 10Gb Uplink for low latency servers. B. Deploy two clusters, one for management workloads and one for application workloads. C. Build 2 Port Groups, one for management services and one for application servers. D. Install two vCenter Servers in Enhanced Link Mode. Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 7 A solution architect has been tasked with designing a new environment that meets the growing needs of a company, and as obtained this information: 1. Each new server will use a single 2-port 10Gb Converged Network Adapter (CNA) for both network and storage access. 2. The network team has replaced all network equipment with a 10Gb fabric. 3. The new environment will host both web servers and Oracle database servers. 4. Resources will not be overcommitted under regular operations to mitigate performance issues. 5. The business needs a tool to understand application failures. 6. $1million has been budgeted for the data center expansion project. Based on the information obtained, which two statements are risks for the new design? (Choose two.) A. The Converged Network Adapters may not be able to support both network and storage throughput. B. The Converged Network Adapters are compatible with vSphere 6.5. C. The Oracle database servers are configured for high availability. D. The total project costs may be over budget due to not overcommitting resources. Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 8 A customer has requested a high availability option for its data center in the event of a power failure and the loss of connectivity to a virtual machine. Which three vSphere features support fault tolerance? (Choose three.) A. HA B. Virtual volume datastore C. vMotion D. Storage-based policy management E. DRS F. Virtual machine snapshots Correct Answer: ACE A, C, E are correct as in fact, they are cluster requirements for FT https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-vSphere/6.5/com.vmware.vsphere.avail.doc/GUID-83FE5A45-8260-436BA603-B8CBD2A1A611.htmlE is partially correct as well, as “You can use vSphere Fault Tolerance with DRS only when the EVC feature is enabled. This process allows fault-tolerant virtual machines to benefit from better initial placement.” h ttps://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-vSphere/6.5/com.vmware.vsphere.avail.doc/GUID-59EA59EBC60F-4815-AE2E-7A38506C516C.html
QUESTION 9 A company is implementing a new vSphere 6.5 environment in order to virtualize one of its business-critical applications. 1. The existing data center equipment is over five years old and the operating system for most of the virtual machines will be end-of-life next quarter. 2. The database servers are physical and are also over 5 years old. 3. The 12 current application virtual machines are configured with two vCPUs, 16GB of memory, and 60GB of storage each. 4. The database administrator states that the 16 existing database servers are quad-socket systems with 64 logical processors, 256GB of memory, and a total of 230TB of storage in use. 5. The system administrator insists that the new virtual machines must be the same size. In this scenario, which option is a non-functional application requirement? A. The operating system must also be upgraded. B. The storage array must have more than 230TB of high-performance storage. C. The ESXi hosts must have 64+ logical processors and 1TB of memory. D. The application virtual machines must be configured with two vCPUs, 16GB of memory, and 60GB of storage. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10 A company would like to utilize its current infrastructure but wants to adopt virtualization to consolidate its environment. Currently, the infrastructure contains: 1. server with 2 x 8 cores CPUs and 96G8 of memory 2. backup LAN with a single physical switch 3. production LAN 4. sufficient datastore performance as determined by the storage team Match the existing infrastructure component to its appropriate concept. Select and Place:
QUESTION 11 A company is a leading provider for an online travel booking system with over a $1,000,000 turnover each day. The company warns to leverage VMware cloud solutions to consolidate, scale, and ensure high availability for all of its data centers. Match each business requirement to its appropriate design concept. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 12 A customer wants to make its data available with an RPO of 10 minutes. Replication to the second data center will be done using the network. Which type of storage configuration should be used? A. NFS datastore on ESXi 6.0 with vSphere replication appliance 6.0 B. VMFS datastore on ESXi 6.0 with vSphere replication appliance 6.5 C. vSAN datastore on ESXi 6.0 with vSphere replication appliance 6.5 D. VMFS datastore on ESXi 6.0 with vSphere replication appliance 6.0 Correct Answer: C vSphere Replication 6.5 is supported on previous ESXi versions (such as 6.0). The only constraint is vCenter is running 6.5 as well (which can be assumed as it is not mentioned). vSphere Replication 6.5 release notes announce the 5 minute RPO (improved from 15 minutes previously) and specifically calls out the limitation of ESXi 6.0 only being supported for vSAN. https://docs.vmware.com/en/vSphere-Replication/6.5/rn/vsphere-replication-65-release-notes.html 1. 5-minute Recovery Point Objective (RPO) support for additional data store types
QUESTION 13 Categorize the tools as providing either Availability or Recoverability. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
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