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CISA Exam details:

Register online for the CISA certification exam. The exam is available either online with remote proctoring or in person at a testing center. Download the CISA Planning Guide for more information.

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Exam registration and payment are required before you can schedule and take an exam.
You will forfeit your fees if you do not schedule and take the exam during your 12-month eligibility period.
No eligibility deferrals or extensions are allowed.

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QUESTION 1

A large chain of shops with electronic funds transfer (EFT) at point-of-sale devices has a central communications processor for connecting to the banking network. Which of the following is the BEST
disaster recovery plan for the communications processor?

A. Offsite storage of daily backups
B. Alternative standby processor onsite
C. installation of duplex communication links
D. Alternative standby processor at another network node

Having an alternative standby processor at another network node would be the best solution. The unavailability of the central communications processor would disrupt all access to the banking network, resulting in the disruption of operations for all of the shops. This could be caused by failure of equipment, power or communications. Offsite storage of backups would not help, since EFT tends to be an online process and offsite storage will not replace the dysfunctional processor. The provision of an alternate processor onsite would be fine if it were an equipment problem, but would not help in the case of a power outage, installation of duplex communication links would be most appropriate if it were only the communication link that failed.

QUESTION 2

For locations 3a, 1d and 3d, the diagram indicates hubs with lines that appear to be open and active. Assuming that is true, what control, if any, should be recommended to mitigate this weakness?

isaca cisa exam questions q2

A. Intelligent hub
B. Physical security over the hubs
C. Physical security and an intelligent hub
D. No controls are necessary since this is not a weakness

Open hubs represent a significant control weakness because of the potential to access a network connection easily. An intelligent hub would allow the deactivation of a single port while leaving the remaining ports active. Additionally, physical security would also provide reasonable protection over hubs with active ports.

QUESTION 3

The risk that the IS auditor will not find an error that has occurred is identified by which of the following terms?

A. Control
B. Prevention
C. Inherent
D. Detection

QUESTION 4

Which of the following controls would BEST decrease the exposure if a password is compromised?

A. Passwords are masked.
B. Passwords are encrypted.
C. Passwords have format restrictions.
D. Password changes are forced periodically.

QUESTION 5

Which testing approach is MOST appropriate to ensure that internal application interface errors are identified as soon as possible?

A. Bottom up
B. Sociability testing
C. Top-down
D. System test

The top-down approach to testing ensures that interface errors are detected early and that testing of major functions is conducted early. A bottom-up approach to testing begins with atomic units, such as programs and modules, and works upward until a complete system test has taken place. Sociability testing and system tests take place at a later stage in the development process.

QUESTION 6

Which of the following BEST enables timely detection of changes in the IT environment to support informed decision making by management?

A. Continuous monitoring
B. Sampling checks on high-risk areas
C. Change management reports
D. Established key risk indicators (KRIs)

QUESTION 7

Security administration procedures require read-only access to:

A. access control tables.
B. security log files.
C. logging options.
D. user profiles.

Security administration procedures require read-only access to security log files to ensure that, once generated, the logs are not modified. Logs provide evidence and track suspicious transactions and activities. Security administration procedures require write access to access control tables to manage and update the privileges according to authorized business requirements. Logging options require write access to allow the administrator to update the way the transactions and user activities are monitored, captured, stored, processed and reported.

QUESTION 8

Which of the following would BEST maintain the integrity of a firewall log?

A. Granting access to log information only to administrators
B. Capturing log events in the operating system layer
C. Writing dual logs onto separate storage media
D. Sending log information to a dedicated third-party log server

Establishing a dedicated third-party log server and logging events in it is the best procedure for maintaining the integrity of a firewall log. When access control to the log server is adequately maintained, the risk of unauthorized log modification will be mitigated, therefore improving the integrity of log information. To enforce segregation of duties, administrators should not have access to log files. This primarily contributes to the assurance of confidentiality rather than integrity. There are many ways to capture log information: through the application layer, network layer, operating systems layer, etc.; however, there is no log integrity advantage in capturing events in the operating systems layer. If it is a highly mission-critical information system, it may be nice to run the system with a dual log mode. Having logs in two different storage devices will primarily contribute to the assurance of the availability of log information, rather than to maintaining its integrity.

QUESTION 9

Which of the following is the MOST effective method for dealing with the spreading of a network worm that exploits vulnerability in a protocol?

A. Install the vendor\\’s security fix for the vulnerability.
B. Block the protocol traffic in the perimeter firewall.
C. Block the protocol traffic between internal network segments.
D. Stop the service until an appropriate security fix is installed.

Stopping the service and installing the security fix is the safest way to prevent the worm from spreading, if the service is not stopped, installing the fix is not the most effective method because the worm continues spreading until the fix
becomes effective. Blocking the protocol on the perimeter does not stop the worm from spreading to the internal
network(s). Blocking the protocol helps to slow down the spreading but also prohibits any software that utilizes it from
working between segments.

QUESTION 10

A new information security manager is charged with reviewing and revising the information security strategy. The information security manager\\’s FIRST course of action should be to gain an understanding of the organization\\’s:

A. security architecture
B. risk register
C. internal control framework
D. business strategy

QUESTION 11

Which of the following is the GREATEST risk of an inadequate policy definition for ownership of data and systems?

A. User management coordination does not exist.
B. Specific user accountability cannot be established.
C. Unauthorized users may have access to originate, modify or delete data.
D. Audit recommendations may not be implemented.

Without a policy defining who has the responsibility for granting access to specific systems, there is an increased risk that one could gain (be given) system access when they should not have authorization. By assigning authority to grant access to specific users, there is a better chance that business objectives will be properly supported.

QUESTION 12

Following a malicious security incident, an organization has decided to prosecute those responsible. Which of the following will BEST facilitate the forensic investigation?

A. Identifying the affected environment
B. Performing a backup of affected systems
C. Determining the degree of loss
D. Maintaining chain of custody

QUESTION 13

A. Adequate resourcing for the incident response team
B. Adequate encryption between applications
C. Adequate application clustering
D. Adequate reciprocal recovery agreement

Publish the answer:

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Latest update Isaca CISA exam questions and answers online practice test

QUESTION 1
In planning an audit, the MOST critical step is the identification of the:
A. areas of high risk.
B. skill sets of the audit staff.
C. test steps in the audit.
D. time allotted for the audit.
Correct Answer: A
When designing an audit plan, it is important to identify the areas of highest risk to determine the areas to be audited.
The skill sets of the audit staff should have been considered before deciding and selecting the audit. Test steps for the
audit is not as critical as identifying the areas of risk, and the time allotted for an audit is determined by the areas to be
audited, which are primarily selected based on the identification of risks.

QUESTION 2
Attribute sampling is BEST suited to estimate:
A. compliance with approved procedures.
B. the true monetary value of a population.
C. the total error amount in the population.
D. whether a recorded balance is within limits of materiality.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Following best practices, formal plans for implementation of new information systems are developed during the:
A. development phase.
B. design phase.
C. testing phase.
D. deployment phase.
Correct Answer: B
Planning for implementation should begin well in advance of the actual implementation date. Formal implementation of the plan should be constructed in the design phase and revised as the development progresses.

QUESTION 4
Which of the following cryptography options would increase overhead/cost?
A. The encryption is symmetric rather than asymmetric.
B. A long asymmetric encryption key is used.
C. The hash is encrypted rather than the message.
D. A secret key is used.
Correct Answer: B
Computer processing time is increased for longer asymmetric encryption keys, and the increase may be
disproportionate. For example, one benchmark showed that doubling the length of an RSA key from 512 bits to 1,024
bits caused the decrypt time to increase nearly six-fold. An asymmetric algorithm requires more processing time than
symmetric algorithms. A hash is shorter than the original message; therefore, a smaller overhead is required if the hash
is encrypted rather than the message. The use of a secret key, as the asymmetric encryption key, is generally small and used
for the purpose of encrypting user data.

QUESTION 5
An IS auditor performing a review of the backup processing facilities should be MOST concerned that:
A. adequate fire insurance exists.
B. regular hardware maintenance is performed.
C. offsite storage of transaction and master files exists.
D. backup processing facilities are fully tested.
Correct Answer: C
Adequate fire insurance and fully tested backup processing facilities are important elements for recovery, but without the
offsite storage of transaction and master files, it is generally impossible to recover. Regular hardware maintenance does
not relate to recovery.

QUESTION 6
While reviewing an organization\\’s business continuity plan (BCP), an IS auditor observes that a recently developed
application is not included. The IS auditor should:
A. ensure that the criticality of the application is determined.
B. ignore the observation as the application is not mission-critical.
C. include in the audit findings that the BCP is incomplete.
D. recommend that the application be incorporated in the BCP.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
To determine if unauthorized changes have been made to the production code the BEST audit procedure is to:
A. examine the change control system records and trace them forward to object code files.
B. review access control permissions operating within the production program libraries.
C. examine object code to find instances of changes and trace them back to change control records.
D. reviews change-approved designations established within the change control system.
Correct Answer: C
The procedure of examining object code files to establish instances of code changes and tracing these back to change
control system records is a substantive test that directly addresses the risk of unauthorized code changes. The other
choices are valid procedures to apply in a change control audit but they do not directly address the risk of unauthorized
code changes.

QUESTION 8
Which of the following type of an IDS resides on important systems like database, critical servers and monitors various
internal resources of an operating system?
A. Signature-based IDS
B. Host-based IDS
C. Network-based IDS
D. Statistical based IDS
Correct Answer: B
Host-Based IDS resides on important systems like database, critical servers, and monitors various internal resources of
an operating system.
Also, you should know the below-mentioned categories and types of IDS for the CISA exam
An IDS works in conjunction with routers and firewalls by monitoring network usage anomalies. Broad categories of IDS
include:
1.
Network-Based IDS
2.
Host-Based IDS
Network-Based IDS
They identify attacks within the monitored network and issue a warning to the operator.
If a network-based IDS is placed between the Internet and the firewall, it will detect all the attack attempts
whether or not they enter the firewall Network-Based IDS are blinded when dealing with encrypted traffic
Host-Based IDS
They are configured for a specific environment and will monitor various internal resources of the operating
system to warn of a possible attack. They can detect the modification of executable programs, detect the
detection of files and issue a warning when an attempt is made to use a privileged account.
They can monitor traffic after it is decrypted and they supplement the Network-Based IDS.
Types of IDS include:
Statistical Based IDS ? This system needs a comprehensive definition of the known and expected behavior
of system
Neural Network? An IDS with this feature monitors the general patterns of activity and traffic on the
network and creates a database. This is similar to the statistical model but with added self-learning
functionality.
Signature Based IDS ? These IDS systems protect against detected intrusion patterns. The intrusive pattern
they can identify are stored in the form of a signature.
The following were incorrect answers:
The other types of IDS mentioned in the options do not reside on important systems like database and
critical servers
Reference:
CISA review manual 2014 Page number 346 and 347

QUESTION 9
The logical exposure associated with the use of a checkpoint restart procedure is:
A. denial of service.
B. an asynchronous attack
C. wiretapping.
D. computer shutdown.
Correct Answer: B
Asynchronous attacks are operating system-based attacks. A checkpoint restart is a feature that stops a program at
specified intermediate points for later restart in an orderly manner without losing data at the checkpoint. The operating
system saves a copy of the computer programs and data in their current state as well as several system parameters
describing the model and security level of the program at the time of the stoppage. An asynchronous attack occurs when an
individual with access to this information is able to gain access to the checkpoint restart copy of the system parameters
and change those parameters such that upon restart the program would function at a higher-priority security level.

QUESTION 10
An IS auditor has identified the lack of an authorization process for users of an application. The IS auditor\\’s main
concern should be that:
A. more than one individual can claim to be a specific user.
B. there is no way to limit the functions assigned to users.
C. user accounts can be shared.
D. users have a need-to-know privilege.
Correct Answer: B
Without an appropriate authorization process, it will be impossible to establish functional limits and accountability. The
risk that more than one individual can claim to be a specific user is associated with the authentication processes, rather
than with authorization. The risk that user accounts can be shared is associated with identification processes, rather
than with authorization. The need-to-know basis is the best approach to assigning privileges during the authorization
process.

QUESTION 11
A development team has designed a new application and incorporated best practices for secure coding. Prior to launch,
which of the following is the IS auditor\\’s BEST recommendation to mitigate the associated security risk?
A. User acceptance testing
B. Unit testing
C. Integration testing
D. Penetration testing
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which of the following is the MAIN purpose of an information security management system?
A. To enhance the impact of reports used to monitor information security incidents
B. To reduce the frequency and impact of information security incidents
C. To identify and eliminate the root causes of information security incidents
D. To keep information security policies and procedures up-to-date
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which of the following MOST effectively prevent internal users from modifying sensitive data?
A. Network segmentation
B. Multi-factor authentication
C. Acceptable use policies
D. Role-based access controls
Correct Answer: D

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Latest Update Isaca CISA Exam Practice Questions and Answers Online Test

QUESTION 1
Which of the following is the MOST important difference between end-user computing (EUC) applications and traditional
applications?
A. Traditional application documentation is typically less comprehensive than EUC application documentation.
B. Traditional applications require roll-back procedures whereas EUC applications do not.
C. Traditional applications require periodic patching whereas EUC applications do not.
D. Traditional application input controls are typically more robust than EUC application input controls.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration when establishing data classification standards?
A. An education campaign is established upon rollout.
B. Reporting metrics are established.
C. Management supports the newly developed standards.
D. The standards comply with relevant regulations.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which of the following findings should be an IS auditor\\’s GREATEST concern when reviewing an organization\\’s
purchase of new IT infrastructure hardware?
A. The new infrastructure arrived with default system settings.
B. The new infrastructure has residual risk within the organization\\’s risk tolerance.
C. The new infrastructure\\’s hardening requirements are stronger than required by policy.
D. The new infrastructure has compatibility issues with existing systems.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
An IS auditor is assigned to perform a post implementation review of an application system. Which pf the following
situations may have impaired the independence of the IS auditor? The IS auditor:
A. implemented a specific control during the development of the application system.
B. designed an embedded audit module exclusively for auditing the application system.
C. participated as a member of the application system project team, but did not have operational responsibilities.
D. provided consulting advice concerning application system best practices.
Correct Answer: A
Independence may be impaired if an IS auditor is, or has been, actively involved in the development,
acquisition and implementation of the application system. Choices B and C are situations that do not impair
an IS auditor\\’s independence.
Choice D is incorrect because an IS auditor\\’s independence is not impaired by providing advice on known
best practices.

QUESTION 5
Confidentiality of the data transmitted in a wireless LAN is BEST protected if the session is:
A. restricted to predefined MAC addresses.
B. encrypted using static keys.
C. encrypted using dynamic keys.
D. initiated from devices that have encrypted storage.
Correct Answer: C
When using dynamic keys, the encryption key is changed frequently, thus reducing the risk of the key being
compromised and the message being decrypted. Limiting the number of devices that can access the network does not
address the issue of encrypting the session. Encryption with static keys-using the same key for a long period of timerisks that the key would be compromised. Encryption of the data on the connected device (laptop, PDA, etc.) addresses
the confidentiality of the data on the device, not the wireless session.

QUESTION 6
Which of the following terms generally refers to small programs designed to take advantage of a software flaw that has
been discovered?
A. exploit
B. patch
C. quick fix
D. service pack
E. malware
F. None of the choices.
Correct Answer: A
“The term “”exploit”” generally refers to small programs designed to take advantage of a software flaw that has been
discovered, either remote or local. The code from the exploit program is frequently reused in trojan horses and computer
viruses. In some cases, a vulnerability can lie in a certain programs processing of a specific file type, such as a nonexecutable media file.”

QUESTION 7
Parity bits are a control used to validate:
A. Data authentication
B. Data completeness
C. Data source
D. Data accuracy
Correct Answer: B
Parity bits are a control used to validate data completeness.

QUESTION 8
During a software acquisition review, an IS auditor should recommend that there be a software escrow agreement
when:
A. the estimated life for the product is less than 3 years.
B. the deliverables do not include the source code.
C. the product is new in the market.
D. there is no service level agreement (SLA).
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
An organization plans to implement a virtualization strategy enabling multiple operating systems on a single host. Which
of the following should be the GREATEST concern with this strategy?
A. Adequate storage space
B. Complexity of administration
C. Network bandwidth
D. Application performance
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which of the following is the MOST effective way for an organization to ensure its third-party service providers are
aware of information security requirements and expectations?
A. Providing information security training to third-party personnel
B. Auditing the service delivery of third-party providers
C. Inducting information security clauses within contracts
D. Requiring third parties to sign confidentiality agreements
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Upon receipt of the initial signed digital certificate the user will decrypt the certificate with the public key of the:
A. registration authority (RA).
B. certificate authority (CA).
C. certificate repository.
D. receiver.
Correct Answer: B
A certificate authority (CA) is a network authority that issues and manages security credentials and public keys for
message encryption. As a part of the public key infrastructure, a CA checks with a registration authority (RA) to verify
information provided by the requestor of a digital certificate. If the RA verifies the requestor\\’s information, the CA can
issue a certificate. The CA signs the certificate with its private key for distribution to the user. Upon receipt, the user will
decrypt the certificate with the CA\\’s public key.

QUESTION 12
To mitigate the risk of exposing data through application programming interface (API) queries, which of the following
design considerations is MOST important?
A. Data minimalization
B. Data quality
C. Data retention
D. Data integrity
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
An internet-based attack using password sniffing can:
A. enable one party to act as if they are another party.
B. cause modification to the contents of certain transactions.
C. be used to gain access to systems containing proprietary information.
D. result in major problems with billing systems and transaction processing agreements.
Correct Answer: C
Password sniffing attacks can be used to gain access to systems on which proprietary information is stored. Spoofing
attacks can be used to enable one party to act as if they are another party. Data modification attacks can be used to
modify the contents of certain transactions. Repudiation of transactions can cause major problems with billing systems
and transaction processing agreements.

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